ECT Do those who believe MAD have no problem disregarding what Jesus actually taught ?

dodge

dodge

New member
Same GOSPEL two different groups of people as in Jews and gentiles.

Jesus NEVER made any distinctions in HIS gospel that the Jews and gentiles would each have a different gospel ever.

John 3:16 For God so loved the WORLD that HE gave His only begotten Son that WHOSOEVER believes will not perish but have everlasting life. Jesus made no distinction between Jews and Gentiles.

When Jesus said in John 14:6 that HE is the way the truth and the life and no man comes to the Father but by Him it applied to everyone, and he made no distinction between Jews and Gentiles.

When Jesus said He was the light of the world He made no distinctions between Jews and Gentiles.

When Jesus said He is the door ( only way to God ) again He made no distinction between Jew and Gentile.

I will stay with what Jesus taught.
 
D

Danoh

New member
SaulToPaul said:
Dodge, you are not wrong in that Gentiles are ultimately included in Jesus' message.
But you are missing the fact that they are intended to be saved through the rise of Israel.

But they fell...
Click to expand...

No, bro, neither The Mystery, nor The Body, are a replacement of that intended, Prophesied salvation.
 
dodge

dodge

New member
SaulToPaul said:
Dodge, you are not wrong in that Gentiles are ultimately included in Jesus' message.
But you are missing the fact that they are intended to be saved through the rise of Israel.

But they fell...
Click to expand...

Show me ONE scripture where Jesus EVER made a distinction in His message between Gentiles and Jews that pertains to salvation or taught 2 gospels. I do not believe it exists.
 
dodge

dodge

New member
SaulToPaul said:
Dodge, you are not wrong in that Gentiles are ultimately included in Jesus' message.
But you are missing the fact that they are intended to be saved through the rise of Israel.

But they fell...
Click to expand...

Rom 11:11
I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
 
dodge

dodge

New member
Danoh said:
Rotfl
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I did not realize that the teachings of Jesus was a "ROTFL" matter.

I do NOT put more credence on Paul's teachings than Jesus' teachings. Paul only taught and preached what he received from Jesus, and the " mystery" was what was withheld for a time by God, but make no mistake it was taught in the OT and by Jesus and ALL of the Apostles and eventually by those who believed and followed God.
 
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Danoh

New member
dodge said:
Rom 11:11
I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy.
Click to expand...

The actually intended sense of any passage, word, or phrase, often relies on all it's writer has said both prior to, as well as after, said passage, word, or phrase.

And what Paul has been saying and will say, greatly impacts the sense of the word "through" in Rom. 11:11.
 
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Danoh

New member
dodge said:
Other than IGNORING what Jesus taught !
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Matthew 10:40 He that receiveth you receiveth me, and he that receiveth me receiveth him that sent me.

Acts 26:15 And I said, Who art thou, Lord? And he said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest. 26:16 But rise, and stand upon thy feet: for I have appeared unto thee for this purpose, to make thee a minister and a witness both of these things which thou hast seen, and of those things in the which I will appear unto thee; 26:17 Delivering thee from the people, and from the Gentiles, unto whom now I send thee, 26:18 To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.
 
dodge

dodge

New member
steko said:
Rom 15:18 For I will not dare to speak of any of those things which Christ hath not wrought by me, to make the Gentiles obedient, by word and deed

Col 1:25 Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;
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The point of the OP is that Jesus never taught nor implied 2 gospels. Can you produce ONE scripture where He taught or implied that He was teaching 2 gospels one for Jews and another for gentiles ? Is everything Madist believe based on PAUL and only what Paul taught ? If that is the case then my OP was right the teachings of Jesus are being IGNORED by Madist.
 
dodge

dodge

New member
Danoh said:
Matthew 10:40 He that receiveth you receiveth me, and he that receiveth me receiveth him that sent me.

Acts 26:15 And I said, Who art thou, Lord? And he said, I am Jesus whom thou persecutest. 26:16 But rise, and stand upon thy feet: for I have appeared unto thee for this purpose, to make thee a minister and a witness both of these things which thou hast seen, and of those things in the which I will appear unto thee; 26:17 Delivering thee from the people, and from the Gentiles, unto whom now I send thee, 26:18 To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.
Click to expand...

The OP was that JESUS never taught nor implied 2 gospels one for gentiles and another for Jews.

The point of the OP is that Jesus never taught nor implied 2 gospels. Can you produce ONE scripture where He taught or implied that He was teaching 2 gospels one for Jews and another for gentiles ? Is everything Madist believe based on PAUL and only what Paul taught ? If that is the case then my OP was right the teachings of Jesus are being IGNORED by Madist.
 
Tambora

Tambora

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dodge said:
When Jesus said in John 14:6 that HE is the way the truth and the life and no man comes to the Father but by Him it applied to everyone, and he made no distinction between Jews and Gentiles.
Click to expand...
When Jesus said the following, He made a distinction.

Matthew 10:5 KJV
(5) These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:​


MAD believes that when Jesus made that distinction, He was doing His Father's will.


Paul makes a distinction also.

Romans 11:28 KJV
(28) As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes.


​
 
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Danoh

New member
dodge said:
The point of the OP is that Jesus never taught nor implied 2 gospels. Can you produce ONE scripture where He taught or implied that He was teaching 2 gospels one for Jews and another for gentiles ? Is everything Madist believe based on PAUL and only what Paul taught ? If that is the case then my OP was right the teachings of Jesus are being IGNORED by Madist.
Click to expand...

From where you are actually looking at things to begin with, in contrast to where you only think you are, it appears to you that you have properly understood where the Madist is coming from.

Problem is, that because your induction is off, the premise you deduce from it is off.

And because your premise is off, the conclusion you arrive at from said off-base premise ends up equally off-base.

Thus, your resulting, off-base assertions about what Mad and or the Madist, supposedly...asserts.
 
dodge

dodge

New member
Tambora said:
When Jesus said the following, He made a distinction.

Matthew 10:5 KJV
(5) These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not:​


MAD believes that when Jesus made that distinction, He was doing His Father's will.


Paul makes a distinction also.

Romans 11:28 KJV
(28) As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers' sakes.


​
Click to expand...

The scriptures you posted speaks to the people that the 12 were sent to and NOTHING about the message they were to deliver.


The point of the OP is that Jesus never taught nor implied 2 gospels. Can you produce ONE scripture where He taught or implied that He was teaching 2 gospels one for Jews and another for gentiles ? Is everything Madist believe based on PAUL and only what Paul taught ? If that is the case then my OP was right the teachings of Jesus are being IGNORED by Madist.
 
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