Dispensationalism (D'ism?) Any one willing to post a definition? Please do so.

[SaulToPaul 2]

Dispensationalism is a non-sensical division of the scriptures that is used to seperate all the blessings from the hardships and responsibilities. The blessings, of course, are reserved for the "true believers." The hardships and responsibilities (example: you must lose your life to save it), these they try to maintain were only meant for the Jews or for those pre- some made up second gospel revelation from Paul. At any rate, it doesn't apply to THEM.

:chuckle:

 

[steko]

As usual, the various individuals who oppose Dispensationalism all prove their same old cluelessness in approach.

Fact of the matter?

Dispensationalism is the result of the obvious throughout the whole of Scripture - Distinctions in Identities between various person's, places, and things, and the need to properly discern their respective seasons.

That is all...Dispensationalism is - the RESULT of said Distinctions in Identities within Scripture as to specific person's; places; things; and their respective seasons.

Nevertheless, Romans 5:8 towards each and every one of you anti-Dispys.

.

:thumb:

 

[northwye]

Dispensationalism should be looked at from the point of view of specific scriptures. Just a few of these scriptures are II Corinthians 3:7, 11, Hebrews 10: 9, and Hebrews 13: 20, on the issue of the continuation of the Old Covenant and the doctrine of a restoration of aspects of the Old Covenant in a future time.

Then Romans 10: 12 and Galatians 3: 28 are two other scriptures to look at dispensationalism from. This is the issue of the equality in Christ of all who have faith in him, no matter what their bloodline. Add Galatians 3 and all these texts deal also with the issue of the continuation of the physical bloodline and of the importance of that which is physical and literal in dispensationalism. And look at John 10: 16, Romans 12: 4-5, and Ephesians 4: 4 on there being one group of God's people, the elect, not two.

 

[oatmeal]

Like AMR does in his first reply,¹ I see the primary distinction of Dispensationalism in their view of the future. Starting from there and working backwards is how I see the dispensational approach to biblical interpretation working itself out. :idunno:


¹ - Notice the volume of words in his points 11-13, which deal with future things, as compared with those in points 1-10:

Spoiler

Question. Is there a change of laws and policies as instituted by God?

Was there a change of policy after Adam and Eve sinned?

Yes.

They were evicted and life became more difficult.

God revealed his plan for man's salvation and redemption in Gen 3:15.

There was clear change in policy and law.

Was there clear change in law and policy with the introduction of the law of Moses?

Yes.

How about with Matthew 1:18? Did Jesus the anointed make a difference?

It is clear to me that God has changed the ruling laws and policies over time an scripture makes it clear that he will continue to do so.

With the new heaven and earth we see an end of those changes.

 

[northwye]

Christian Zionism should be defined by use of quotes from the founders - of dispensationalism. John Darby, C.I. Scofield, Lewis S. Chafer and others said the fundamental starting assumptions of dispensationalism is consistent literalism in interpretation and that God now has two distinct peoples, Israel and the Church. In dispensationalism Israel is always only Old Covenant Israel. Not defining this theology by use of quotes from its founders allows confusion.

Lewis S. Chafer said that dispensationalism has
"...changed the Bible from being a mass of more or less conflicting
writings into a classified and easily assimilated revelation of both
the earthly and heavenly purposes of God, which reach on into eternity
to come.." Lewis. S. Chafer, ‘Dispensationalism,’ Bibliotheca Sacra, 93 (October 1936), 410, 416, 446-447

Dispensationalists try to avoid comparing doctrines of their theology with scripture. Dispensationalism made changes in the doctrines of Romans 2: 28-29, Romans 9: 6-8, Romans 11: 1-5, Romans 11: 17-20, Galatians 3: 3, 16, 26-29, Galatians 4: 24-26 and Hebrews 10: 9,Hebrews Hebrews 13: 20, John 10: 16, Romans 12: 4-5 and Ephesians 4: 4. You can Google "The new John Gill exposition of the entire Bible" and find out the Reformation Protestant meanings for each of the scriptures above and compare those meanings to the doctrines of dispensationalism.

 

[jamie]

Was there a change of policy after Adam and Eve sinned?

No, sin was always against God.

 

[jamie]

Was there clear change in law and policy with the introduction of the law of Moses?

No, the law given by God through Moses was only for the nation of Israel.

 

[jamie]

Jesus hung on his cross for six hours.

Those six hours correspond to the days of salvation.

 

[oatmeal]

No, sin was always against God.

True and to love God by keeping his commandments is always true.

So you conclude that Jesus Christ accomplished nothing?

Was it all show and pretense so that religions could put crosses on their houses of idolatry?

 

[oatmeal]

No, the law given by God through Moses was only for the nation of Israel.

Was God choosing Abraham and Isaac and Jacob something different from before?

Abraham was a Gentile as was Isaac and Jacob, Jacob was not a Jew, he was the father of Judah.

So the giving of the law was not something new? Did Adam and Eve have the written law of Moses at their disposal?

How about Noah or Abraham? Why not?

 

[oatmeal]

Jesus hung on his cross for six hours.

Those six hours correspond to the days of salvation.

Really ? Any scripture to substantiate that?

or is that just another wild guess?

 

[jamie]

So you conclude that Jesus Christ accomplished nothing?

Jesus said he could do nothing of himself.

"Then Jesus answered and said to them, 'Most assuredly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, but what He sees the Father do; for whatever He does, the Son also does in like manner.'" (John 5:19)

"Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a Man attested by God to you by miracles, wonders, and signs which God did through Him" (Acts 2:22)

Who do you claim did the miracles, wonders, and signs?

 

[jamie]

Really ? Any scripture to substantiate that?

or is that just another wild guess?

"Now it was the third hour and they crucified Him." (Mark 15:25)

"And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out" (Mark 15:34)

9-3=6 hours

How many do you count?

 

[oatmeal]

Jesus said he could do nothing of himself.

"Then Jesus answered and said to them, 'Most assuredly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of Himself, but what He sees the Father do; for whatever He does, the Son also does in like manner.'" (John 5:19)

"Men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a Man attested by God to you by miracles, wonders, and signs which God did through Him" (Acts 2:22)

Who do you claim did the miracles, wonders, and signs?

Jesus obeyed his Father, when God told him to do a miracle, he did it, when God told him to heal someone, he did it. It was by the power of God that was unleashed by Jesus' obedience that the signs, miracles and wonders were done.

 

[oatmeal]

"Now it was the third hour and they crucified Him." (Mark 15:25)

"And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out" (Mark 15:34)

9-3=6 hours

How many do you count?

You said six hours represent the six days of salvation.

What six days of salvation?

For that matter, what does that have to do with defining dispensationalism?

 

[oatmeal]

That God initiated various policies and laws at different times to serve His purposes is self evident.

 

[jamie]

You said six hours represent the six days of salvation.

What six days of salvation?

Someone said, "that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day."

"Behold, now is the accepted time; behold, now is the day of salvation." (2 Corinthians 6:2)

Are you thinking the day of salvation just lasted 12 or 24 hours?

 

[jamie]

For that matter, what does that have to do with defining dispensationalism?

Dispensation means administration.

How long has God been administering salvation?

I know, I know, you believe salvation began with Paul, right?

"Therefore God is not ashamed to be called their God, for He has prepared a city for them." (Hebrews 11:16)

"For them" refers to whom?

Never mind, some of the persons named lived years before Paul.

 

[jamie]

Jacob was not a Jew

Neither was Moses.

Mosaic law was God's law.

Jewish law is Rabbinic law.

They are not the same.

 

[jamie]

Jesus obeyed his Father, when God told him to do a miracle, he did it, when God told him to heal someone, he did it. It was by the power of God that was unleashed by Jesus' obedience that the signs, miracles and wonders were done.

Was Jesus the only person who obeyed the Father?

Who was the power behind Peter?

"so that they brought the sick out into the streets and laid them on beds and couches, that at least the shadow of Peter passing by might fall on some of them." (Acts 5:15)