Dispensationalism As Separation Theology On Church and Israel
Dispensationalists divide the people of God into two groups, Israel, by which they always mean Old Covenant Israel, and the Capital C Church.
"Israel is an eternal nation, heir to an eternal land, with an eternal kingdom, on which David rules from an eternal throne so that in eternity, '...never the twain, Israel and church, shall meet." Lewis S. Chafer, Systematic Theology (Dallas, Dallas Seminary Press, 1975), Vol. 4. pp. 315-323.
Charles C. Ryrie (born 1925) says:
"basic promise of Dispensationalism is two purposes of God expressed
in the formation of two peoples who maintain their distinction
throughout eternity." Charles C. Ryrie, Dispensationalism Today,1966, pp.44-45.
J. Dwight Pentecost in his book Things To Come ( 1965) says "The church and Israel are two distinct groups with whom God has a divine plan.
But - Luke 1: 67-69 says "And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost and prophesied saying:
68 Blessed be the Lord God of Israel for he hath visited and redeemed his people.
69 And hath raised up an horn of salvation unto us in the house of his servant David."
Jesus Christ redeemed Israel and opened up a pathway to salvation in redeemed Israel.
I have never seen a clear statement by followers of dispensationalism into which of the two dispensationalist groups that the Jewish Christians - those of the physical bloodline who accepted Christ and were born again to become the first of the elect of the New Covenant in the First Century - are to be put, Redeemed Israel or the Church..
Were the first Christians - all of the physical bloodline - in the early chapters of Acts according to dispensationalism in the ekklesia or in the redeemed Israel of Luke 1: 68? And does the New Testament make a distinction or separation between those of redeemed Israel and the ekklesia?
Paul says in Romans 10: 12, "For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him."
He says in Galatians 3: 28, "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus."
If all who accept Christ, are born again and he is in them are one regardless of their physical bloodline or DNA, then how can there be a separation between Jewish Christians and non-Jewish Christians. There is not a separation. If dispensationalism says there is, it is a lie.
Romans 2: 28-29: "For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29. But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God."
There is no more a Jew defined by the physical bloodline, but the elect of redeemed Israel of all races are defined by their spiritual state in Jesus Christ.
A dispensationalist might says of Ephesians 4: 10-12 that "After Christ ascended on high, he gave gifts to men, and those gifts are how the church was to move forward,"
But where does the church, from ekklesia, enter into the Gospel from Luke 1: 67-69, and from Romans 10: 12, Galatians 3: 28 and Romans 2: 28-29 as an elect group, the people of God, different from redeemed Israel. It is not clear that dispensationalism even recognizes that there is a redeemed Israel. They often say that Israel rejected Christ, not recognizing Romans 11: 1-5 saying that a remnant of Old Covenant Israel were elected to salvation by grace, with the implication being that this remnant began redeemed Israel of the New Covenant.
If we use the meaning of the Greek ekklesia, as the meeting, assembly or congregation, than the statement of the dispensationalisat on Ephesians 4: 10-12 would says : "This is why Ephesians 4 reads that after Christ ascended on high, he gave gifts to men, and those gifts are how the MEETING was to move forward." But the dispensationalist does not mean that the Church is just a congregation of redeemed Israel, but that the Church and Israel are totally different groups or peoples of God.
Or, using the definition of churche or chirche somewhere around the time the New Testament was written, it could say "...after Christ ascended on high, he gave gifts to men, and those gifts are how the (house of a PAGAN LORD, THE CIRCLE or the Greek GODDESS CIRCE), was to move forward."
Dispensationalists divide the people of God into two groups, Israel, by which they always mean Old Covenant Israel, and the Capital C Church.
"Israel is an eternal nation, heir to an eternal land, with an eternal kingdom, on which David rules from an eternal throne so that in eternity, '...never the twain, Israel and church, shall meet." Lewis S. Chafer, Systematic Theology (Dallas, Dallas Seminary Press, 1975), Vol. 4. pp. 315-323.
Charles C. Ryrie (born 1925) says:
"basic promise of Dispensationalism is two purposes of God expressed
in the formation of two peoples who maintain their distinction
throughout eternity." Charles C. Ryrie, Dispensationalism Today,1966, pp.44-45.
J. Dwight Pentecost in his book Things To Come ( 1965) says "The church and Israel are two distinct groups with whom God has a divine plan.
But - Luke 1: 67-69 says "And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Ghost and prophesied saying:
68 Blessed be the Lord God of Israel for he hath visited and redeemed his people.
69 And hath raised up an horn of salvation unto us in the house of his servant David."
Jesus Christ redeemed Israel and opened up a pathway to salvation in redeemed Israel.
I have never seen a clear statement by followers of dispensationalism into which of the two dispensationalist groups that the Jewish Christians - those of the physical bloodline who accepted Christ and were born again to become the first of the elect of the New Covenant in the First Century - are to be put, Redeemed Israel or the Church..
Were the first Christians - all of the physical bloodline - in the early chapters of Acts according to dispensationalism in the ekklesia or in the redeemed Israel of Luke 1: 68? And does the New Testament make a distinction or separation between those of redeemed Israel and the ekklesia?
Paul says in Romans 10: 12, "For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him."
He says in Galatians 3: 28, "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus."
If all who accept Christ, are born again and he is in them are one regardless of their physical bloodline or DNA, then how can there be a separation between Jewish Christians and non-Jewish Christians. There is not a separation. If dispensationalism says there is, it is a lie.
Romans 2: 28-29: "For he is not a Jew, which is one outwardly; neither is that circumcision, which is outward in the flesh:
29. But he is a Jew, which is one inwardly; and circumcision is that of the heart, in the spirit, and not in the letter; whose praise is not of men, but of God."
There is no more a Jew defined by the physical bloodline, but the elect of redeemed Israel of all races are defined by their spiritual state in Jesus Christ.
A dispensationalist might says of Ephesians 4: 10-12 that "After Christ ascended on high, he gave gifts to men, and those gifts are how the church was to move forward,"
But where does the church, from ekklesia, enter into the Gospel from Luke 1: 67-69, and from Romans 10: 12, Galatians 3: 28 and Romans 2: 28-29 as an elect group, the people of God, different from redeemed Israel. It is not clear that dispensationalism even recognizes that there is a redeemed Israel. They often say that Israel rejected Christ, not recognizing Romans 11: 1-5 saying that a remnant of Old Covenant Israel were elected to salvation by grace, with the implication being that this remnant began redeemed Israel of the New Covenant.
If we use the meaning of the Greek ekklesia, as the meeting, assembly or congregation, than the statement of the dispensationalisat on Ephesians 4: 10-12 would says : "This is why Ephesians 4 reads that after Christ ascended on high, he gave gifts to men, and those gifts are how the MEETING was to move forward." But the dispensationalist does not mean that the Church is just a congregation of redeemed Israel, but that the Church and Israel are totally different groups or peoples of God.
Or, using the definition of churche or chirche somewhere around the time the New Testament was written, it could say "...after Christ ascended on high, he gave gifts to men, and those gifts are how the (house of a PAGAN LORD, THE CIRCLE or the Greek GODDESS CIRCE), was to move forward."
