ECT Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

[Jason0047]

Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

According to Hosea 1:2: Many well intentioned Christians believe God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. However, is this true?

Well, to entertain such an idea that the Lord our God would send a specific command to one of His prophets to indulge in an act of fornication with a prostitute is not only wrong but it does not make any logical sense. For there are two very important facts a person has to ignore when they believe such a thing.

#1. A person has to Ignore God's Holy and righteous character. For haven't we read within the Scriptures that say: "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man" (James 1:13).

#2. A person has to ignore just how horrific the sinful act of fornication is bodily and the false worship of idolatry actually is.

Should we believe that the Lord would force a holy man of God into committing this despicable act with a prostitute (i.e. fornication) for the purpose of reproving the abominations of others? How could Hosea be the instrument for exposing & punishing the sin of Israel when He would be just as guilty as they? Where is the wisdom in this, as the means for Israel to change?

I believe part of the problem lies within the translation of Modern Versions. Some of them flat out say that the Lord told Hosea to marry a prostitute. This would include the New International Version (NIV), New Language Translation (NLT), God's Word (2003), and the Webster's Bible Translation to name just a few.

However, according to the King James (1769 Edition) in Hosea 1:2 it says:

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD."

At dictionary.com the word "whoredoms" refers to "idolatry". So if we were to re-read this verse with the word idolatry instead. The verse becomes a lot clearer.

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of idolatry and children of idolatry: for the land hath committed great idolatry, departing from the LORD." ~ (Hosea 1:2)

Doesn't the truth make more sense when you interpret it correctly?
Do you agree?

...

 

[Lazy afternoon]

Yep.

 

[Thunder's Muse]

Just so you know...God loves prostitues, too.

 

[Burning Bush]

An idolater IS a prostitute in God's eyes, for he/she had joined themselves to another (god)......

 

[Son of Jack]

Just so you know...God loves prostitues, too.

Yes, He does. I think that is quite the point of the first three chapters of Hosea. Hosea's marriage was a physical and tangible representation of God's relationship with Israel, with His chosen people.

 

[oatmeal]

Did God Really Tell Hosea to Marry a Prostitute?

According to Hosea 1:2: Many well intentioned Christians believe God told Hosea to marry a prostitute. However, is this true?

Well, to entertain such an idea that the Lord our God would send a specific command to one of His prophets to indulge in an act of fornication with a prostitute is not only wrong but it does not make any logical sense. For there are two very important facts a person has to ignore when they believe such a thing.

#1. A person has to Ignore God's Holy and righteous character. For haven't we read within the Scriptures that say: "Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man" (James 1:13).

#2. A person has to ignore just how horrific the sinful act of fornication is bodily and the false worship of idolatry actually is.

Should we believe that the Lord would force a holy man of God into committing this despicable act with a prostitute (i.e. fornication) for the purpose of reproving the abominations of others? How could Hosea be the instrument for exposing & punishing the sin of Israel when He would be just as guilty as they? Where is the wisdom in this, as the means for Israel to change?

I believe part of the problem lies within the translation of Modern Versions. Some of them flat out say that the Lord told Hosea to marry a prostitute. This would include the New International Version (NIV), New Language Translation (NLT), God's Word (2003), and the Webster's Bible Translation to name just a few.

However, according to the King James (1769 Edition) in Hosea 1:2 it says:

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of whoredoms and children of whoredoms: for the land hath committed great whoredom, departing from the LORD."

At dictionary.com the word "whoredoms" refers to "idolatry". So if we were to re-read this verse with the word idolatry instead. The verse becomes a lot clearer.

"The beginning of the word of the LORD by Hosea. And the LORD said to Hosea, Go, take unto thee a wife of idolatry and children of idolatry: for the land hath committed great idolatry, departing from the LORD." ~ (Hosea 1:2)

Doesn't the truth make more sense when you interpret it correctly?
Do you agree?

...

Idolatry is whoring after other gods.

Hosea was told to marry the woman. Which is what Hosea did.

God did not tell Hosea to purchase sex from her.

There is no indication that Hosea had sex with her before they were married.

oatmeal

 

[Nick M]

Why not put this in the religion section where it belongs? It is not an issue to the Body of Christ.

 

[Jason0047]

Why not put this in the religion section where it belongs? It is not an issue to the Body of Christ.

Why not put this in the religion section (that does not deal with Christ)?

1. Well, the story of Hosea is a typification of Christ. In fact, every detail of the Old Testament speaks of the Messiah.

2. This forum is exclusively for those who consider themselves Christian and consider the Bible to be the inspired word of God (See Sub-heading of this thread).

Revised Note:

Okay. I now see why you want to keep the different sections separate. Although I may not agree that the Old Testament is separate on the topic of Jesus Christ, I do believe you want to keep all Old Testament topics and discussions in a place where all believers who hold to the Old Testament can discuss it.

 

[Jason0047]

Idolatry is whoring after other gods. Hosea was told to marry the woman. Which is what Hosea did. God did not tell Hosea to purchase sex from her. There is no indication that Hosea had sex with her before they were married.

OM:

Having sex before marriage was not the issue. The Marrying of a Prostitute is the problem.

In fact, God had forbidden the marrying of prostitutes within the Law.

"And he shall take a wife in her virginity. A widow, or a divorced woman, or profane, or an harlot, these shall he not take: but he shall take a virgin of his own people to wife." ~ (Leviticus 21:13-14).

Marriage is a sacred union between a man and a woman. If the other person is not faithful, it sort of destroys the whole purpose of what that marriage is trying to be. Which is two flesh becoming one. So God would not go against one of His own highest and "moral" laws that He created.

This lie that "God told Hosea to marry a prostitute" is believed by many Christians. It is pushed within modern translations falsely. Which in effect tries to smear the good name of God's good character.

Which in my book, is totally not cool.

...

 

[WandererInFog]

"And he shall take a wife in her virginity. A widow, or a divorced woman, or profane, or an harlot, these shall he not take: but he shall take a virgin of his own people to wife." ~ (Leviticus 21:13-14).

That's a command specific to the high priest, having nothing whatsoever to do with making a broad general rule.

Hosea was commanded to marry a prostitute and did so, and in doing so he committed no sin whatsoever. It was God's intention for Hosea's marriage to serve as a picture to his convenant people of his love for them and his willingness to forgive their sins despite their behavior.

 

[Nick M]

2. This forum is exclusively for those who consider themselves Christian and consider the Bible to be the inspired word of God (See Sub-heading of this thread).

...

So put it where it belongs.

 

[Jason0047]

That's a command specific to the high priest, having nothing whatsoever to do with making a broad general rule.

WIF:

The law not to marry a prostitute not only included the priests but anyone of the house of Israel.

"There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a Sodomite of the sons of Israel. Thou shalt not bring the hire of a whore, or the price of a dog, into the house of the Lord thy God for any vow: for even both these are abomination unto the Lord thy God." ~ (Deuteronomy 23:17-18)

Hosea was commanded to marry a prostitute and did so, and in doing so he committed no sin whatsoever.

Don't trust the modern Bible translations you are currently reading. God is not one to break His own moral and sacred Laws. He can change various commands that applied to a specific group of people during a specific time period (like with Noah and his family to repopulate the Earth). However, God does not break His eternal moral laws, though.

It was God's intention for Hosea's marriage to serve as a picture to his covenant people of his love for them and his willingness to forgive their sins despite their behavior.

How do we make sure we are not misinterpreting a passage incorrectly in the Bible?

What is the one test that we can do that can prove we are either right, or wrong?

It's by comparing Scripture with Scripture. If you do not have Scripture to back up that Hosea was a prostitute before Hosea married her besides Hosea 1:2, then you don't really have a case. Scripture has to be compared side by side with other Scripture.

Otherwise we fall into the danger of seeing something that is not really there.

For God would never tell one of His own to marry a prostitute. It would not only be immoral on the part of God's character to do so, but it would make God a liar for saying one thing and doing another.

...

 

[This Charming Manc]

OK so God and the bible aren't holy enough for you ?

Leviticus 21 which you quoted applies to priests only.

I suggest you believe what the bible says and stop trying to make rules up for God.

If 99% of translations agree, and most bible commentators agree, its probably where things stand.

Seems to be your are demanding God applies your standard, and you are not submitting yourself to his

OM:

Having sex before marriage was not the issue. The Marrying of a Prostitute is the problem.

In fact, God had forbidden the marrying of prostitutes within the Law.

"And he shall take a wife in her virginity. A widow, or a divorced woman, or profane, or an harlot, these shall he not take: but he shall take a virgin of his own people to wife." ~ (Leviticus 21:13-14).

Marriage is a sacred union between a man and a woman. If the other person is not faithful, it sort of destroys the whole purpose of what that marriage is trying to be. Which is two flesh becoming one. So God would not go against one of His own highest and "moral" laws that He created.

This lie that "God told Hosea to marry a prostitute" is believed by many Christians. It is pushed within modern translations falsely. Which in effect tries to smear the good name of God's good character.

Which in my book, is totally not cool.

...

 

[WandererInFog]

WIF:

The law not to marry a prostitute not only included the priests but anyone of the house of Israel.

"There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a Sodomite of the sons of Israel. Thou shalt not bring the hire of a whore, or the price of a dog, into the house of the Lord thy God for any vow: for even both these are abomination unto the Lord thy God." ~ (Deuteronomy 23:17-18)

Nothing in that verse is relevant. It forbids hiring a prostitute, not marrying a woman who had been employed as one. You're continuously reading things into the text which aren't there. Also, do you acknowledge that previous text you quotes was directed only to the high priest? Or do you believe everyone is also forbidden to marry widows?

Don't trust the modern Bible translations you are currently reading.

The "modern" translation I typically read is the 1599 Geneva Bible: "At the beginning the Lord spake by Hosea, and the Lord said vnto Hosea, Goe, take vnto thee a wife of fornications, and children of fornications: for the lande hath committed great whoredome, departing from the Lord." There is absolutely no question in any translation, that the woman being referred to is a prostitute.

And I could go even further back and quote Martin Luther or Jerome interpreting the passage the exact same way.

Otherwise we fall into the danger of seeing something that is not really there.

Which is precisely what you've done here as there exists no passage in all of Scripture which states that a woman who has worked as a prostitute can never leave that life and be married.

 

[Bradley D]

When God speaks of whoredoms in the OT He is speaking of the Israelites chasing after other nations idols. So Hosea's marriage probably was to such an Israelite.

 

[Jason0047]

Nothing in that verse is relevant. It forbids hiring a prostitute, not marrying a woman who had been employed as one. You're continuously reading things into the text which aren't there. Also, do you acknowledge that previous text you quotes was directed only to the high priest? Or do you believe everyone is also forbidden to marry widows?

WIF:

No. The point I wanted to stress that if it was forbidden to even hire a prostitute, then how much more worse is it to marry one? Well, a prostitute doesn't always become faithful just because you instantly decide to marry them. You are still taking a huge risk that they are going to slide back into their old ways and sleep around again. The Lord knows this and knows that if you let one of them (whether by marriage or by being hired) you take the chance on destroying your people.

For if you were to just read the first part of the passage, it is pretty clear.

"There shall be no whore of the daughters of Israel, nor a Sodomite of the sons of Israel." ~ (Deuteronomy 23:17)

Meaning... that God did not want prostitutes to be apart of Israel! It doesn't get any clearer than that.

God wanted His people to be Holy and separate!

In fact, Gomer was not a prostitute before Hosea married her. The book of Hosea itself makes this fact very clear for these reasons:

1) They, who make the claim that Gomer was a prostitute when Hosea married her, read Hosea 1:2-3 in error. It is not saying to go take a wife that is already in the sin of whoredom, but to go take a wife who will become a prostitute and have illegitimate children, as Israel had prostituted itself and produced illegitimate (idolatrous, lawless) children. For Israel "hath committed great whoredom, departing from the Lord."

2) Verse three says, "So he went and took Gomer the daughter of Diblaim..." When one understands Biblical marriage, it is understood that if Gomer had had other men, she would not have been referred to as "the daughter of" her father, but as a man's wife or a harlot. To identify her as "the daughter of" was to indicate that she was still a virgin under her father's authority within his house. She had not yet known a man. It is this virgin that Hosea covenanted for and married (sexual intimacy).

3) Verse three is also backed up by Hosea 2:7 saying, "...I will go and return to my first husband..." Her first husband was Hosea to whom she would go back to. Otherwise, if Hosea wasn't her first husband who would be? Who was her second, third, fourth... husbands? It's a similar situation as when Jesus encountered the woman at the well and said to her, "For thou hast had five husbands; and he whom thou now hast is not thy husband..." (John 4:18). Just as God was the first for Israel and Israel the first for God, so was Hosea the first for Gomer and Gomer the first for Hosea.

4) Israel was not defiled when God chose and formed a nation of Him, "When Israel was a child, then I loved him, and called my son out of Egypt" (Hosea 11:1). Israel was a young innocent child when God called (married) him out of Egypt, not a defiled fornicated one. Israel was unformed in Egypt and, then, formed and nurtured by God when called out and given His law. Israel, the nation, fornicated itself afterward; just as Gomer did. "I found Israel like grapes in the wilderness; I saw your fathers as the first ripe in the fig tree at her first time: but they went to Baal-peor, and separated themselves unto that shame; and their abominations were according as they loved" (Hosea 9:10).

5) The first child Jezreel was Hosea's son. He represented the righteous seed that was and would be sown in Israel. The other children Lo-ruhamah and Lo-ammi were children from her fornications. This is seen in Hosea 2:1-5, where he says, "Say ye [Jezreel] unto your brethren, Ammi; and to your sisters, Ruhamah. Plead with your mother, plead; for she is not my wife, neither am I her husband...for they be the children of whoredoms. For their mother hath played the harlot; she that conceived them hath done shamefully..."

http://blogs.christianpost.com/marriage/god-told-hosea-to-do-what-4672/

 

[fzappa13]

Marriage is a prophetic symbol of that which is to come ... I rather suspect God knew what He was doing even though the meaning of it yet escapes you.

 

[One Eyed Jack]

Which is precisely what you've done here as there exists no passage in all of Scripture which states that a woman who has worked as a prostitute can never leave that life and be married.

In fact, we know that they can. Jesus is descended from Rahab, who was a prostitute living in Jericho.

 

[Thunder's Muse]

Wow..is it just prostitues you hate, or women in general?

 

[Random]

)

Doesn't the truth make more sense when you interpret it correctly?
Do you agree?

Unfortunately, you are not interpreting it correctly.

In the Hebrew Text of Hosea, Gomer is called an "eshet zenunim" or a woman of harlotry. Zenunum is derived from the word zanah which basically means to be promiscuous. Gomer was a whore. Whether or not she was an actual whore (such as a temple prostitute) is somewhat unclear. However, the core of it is that she was unfaithful and sexually promiscuous. Second, Hosea is not committing fornication with her because he marries her. Fornication is the act of having sex outside the confines of a legally established marriage. Besides, there was nothing forbidding a man marrying a woman who was not a virgin. In fact a woman who was dismissed by her husband with a divorce certificate (Deuteronomy 24) could remarry. That was actually the point of the certificate.

The problem with your interpretation is that you are confusing the marriage metaphor which is used to delineated God's covenant relationship with his people. We have to understand that marriage in the ancient world was a covenant contract. The Hebrew word "berit" is the word that is often used describe the union of marriage. It is the same word used for covenant. God's covenant with his people is thought of in terms of a marriage. When his people worship other gods, it is likened to adultery because it is a violation of the contract. Hence why Israel is described as an unfaithful wife. It is of course purely metaphorical. The marriage of Hosea and Gomer was symbolic of God's relationship with Israel and their continued disobedience and unfaithfulness.