Catholics vs protestants

Nihilo

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Banned
A false accusation.
Really. You are of the school who reads specifically the Apostle Paul as being specifically written to the Church today, and here in 1st Timothy 5:8 (KJV) Paul writes what you dismiss as hyperbole, and refuse to think anymore deeply about what he might mean by that hyperbole, even though you believe and teach that only Paul's epistles are written specifically to the Body of Christ today?

Hypocrite. True.
 

Right Divider

Body part
Really. You are of the school who reads specifically the Apostle Paul as being specifically written to the Church today, and here in 1st Timothy 5:8 (KJV) Paul writes what you dismiss as hyperbole, and refuse to think anymore deeply about what he might mean by that hyperbole, even though you believe and teach that only Paul's epistles are written specifically to the Body of Christ today?
I do NOT dismiss it at all, you liar.

Hypocrite. True.
No, I won't take the word of a LIAR.
 

Right Divider

Body part
You refuse to think anymore deeply about it than dismissing it as hyperbole. No lie there.
It wasn't my word, it was yours.
I did NOT dismiss it AT ALL.

YOU were trying to FALSELY represent what it means.

You are consistently a LIAR.

That also makes you worse than an infidel.

You should change your ways.
 

Nihilo

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Banned
By saying that "I dismiss it", you are LYING. It's just that simple.
You brush it off then. You ignore it. It doesn't get in the way of your understanding of what Paul meant when he wrote it. It was a throw-away. Let's try an experiment: What if instead of Paul it was me who wrote, "If any provide not for his own, and specially for those of his own house, he hath denied the faith, and is worse than an infidel." What would you respond to me?
No, you do.
I'm rubber and you're glue? :crackup:
 

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Body part
You brush it off then. You ignore it.
No, I do not. You just continue to make a larger pile of your LIES.

It doesn't get in the way of your understanding of what Paul meant when he wrote it. It was a throw-away. Let's try an experiment: What if instead of Paul it was me who wrote, "If any provide not for his own, and specially for those of his own house, he hath denied the faith, and is worse than an infidel." What would you respond to me?
I'm not going to play your silly games.

I'm rubber and you're glue? :crackup:
:DK:
 

James Dalton

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Banned
You brush it off then. You ignore it. It doesn't get in the way of your understanding of what Paul meant when he wrote it. It was a throw-away. Let's try an experiment: What if instead of Paul it was me who wrote, "If any provide not for his own, and specially for those of his own house, he hath denied the faith, and is worse than an infidel." What would you respond to me?
I'm rubber and you're glue? :crackup:

No, I do not. You just continue to make a larger pile of your LIES.


I'm not going to play your silly games.


:DK:

Ooh! Gorilla glue!

I think I know who is and isn't catholic here, but just to be sure, do these verses mean anything special to any of you?

John 4:21 Jesus replied, “Believe me, dear woman, the time is coming when it will no longer matter whether you worship the Father on this mountain or in Jerusalem. 22 You Samaritans know very little about the one you worship, while we Jews know all about him, for salvation comes through the Jews. 23 But the time is coming—indeed it’s here now—when true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and in truth. The Father is looking for those who will worship him that way. 24 For God is Spirit, so those who worship him must worship in spirit and in truth.”
 

Right Divider

Body part
Here is a hypocrite in action:
I agree with you. The Body of Christ are the only people who are saved, or who will be saved. But in order that what Paul wrote in 1st Timothy 5:8 (KJV) squares with what he wrote in Romans 4:5 (KJV), there needs to be an explanation, and I believe there is one, because I believe both passages. "But if any provide not for his own, and specially for those of his own house, he hath denied the faith, and is worse than an infidel." He specifically ties together works and faith in this verse, there's an explanation, there must be an explanation. Is it hyperbolic? 'Could be, I just don't know, I have ideas, I've got a hunch, a leaning, but I can't be sure. I don't think it's hyperbolic, although it could be.

You refuse to think anymore deeply about it than dismissing it as hyperbole. No lie there.
It wasn't my word, it was yours.

Good work there saint.
 

Nihilo

BANNED
Banned
Incidentally RD, we didn't even get this far before you pulled out the gorilla glue on me, but Paul didn't write 1st Timothy to a particular church, but to a bishop. So what does it mean that Paul utilized hyperbole in instructing a Church overseer? How seriously do you think Paul was that bishops should treat behavior in the Church? Lightly? Or very, very seriously? This is what I mean by you dismissing it. You're not engaging the question.
 
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