Hello Elia,
You wrote:
Yep - I know this sort of miracle is impossible for mankind, but you limit God, who is the omni-present creator of everything, if you assume that HE could not accomplish this.
If you study the scripture with a more open mind to divine miracles, then you will see that God created a bodily form for himself - before he created the bodily form for Adam after ITS likeness - Genesis 1:26-27
KJV. Knowing this makes it easy to understand that God would use that image repeatedly. God not only shared his personal visible created likeness with the first Adam ... but also used IT himself as a super-natural presence- Exodus 24:9-12 KJV... and he also used IT to manifest the Promised Savior... Colossians 1:14-15 KJV.
Lord Jesus was the express image of the invisible God, the image, that was the first born of every creature.
IOW, God's IMAGE was the first born of every creature ... only after God had his IMAGE did HE share ITs likeness with the first Adam.
You wrote.
Yes, God the Son - appearing as his own son ... as an individual with flesh, was able to pray to God the Father, who was the divine God appearing as an individual with a heavenly super-natural body.
There is ONE invisible spiritual God ... but HE was/is able to appear in multiples simultaneously and of differing essences.
Besides, Jesus gave us a hint of why he prayed publicly before others. It was so people would understand that LORD God the Father, whom the Jews were aware, was working through him. Obviously these prayers of Jesus to the Father, to which you have referred were public prayers ... for some individual recorded them in the scriptures.
You quoted one of Jesus's prayers and commented:
There is a great example in Genesis 18-19 where THREE super-natural men visited Abram ... Abram referred to all three of them by the same name or title. The KJ Bible uses the term LORD as to how he address THEM. If you follow the activities of three LORDs, you will find that they work in ONE accord to accomplish God's will ... but along the way they each have freewill to change their minds and change their planned activities simultaneously.
So the fact that God the son, who was also an individual appearing in mortal flesh, is about to endure humiliation, torture, and a long death is lamenting the pain that he knows he is about to endure...is not unreasonable. Yet, you know that Jesus did not follow the fear stemming from his human flesh ... but only did what the Father had planned from the Start. Yes, I would say that God, as the Son, dreaded tasting a painful death... and may have had thoughts of whether there could be another WAY... but there wasn't. The living flesh of the Son had to taste death.
Yes, I think you will realize that the divine LORD Jesus was also subjected to many of the laws of nature of this created world. He was appearing with mortal flesh ... He grew tired, needed food, and water, could be killed. God subject himself to our condition in order to rescue us out of our condition.
You wrote:
He called out Eli, Eli ... which can be interpreted as My God My God ... but is was also the name of the LAST priest that was accepted unconditionally by God. Read I Samuel 2:27-35. It was Eli that forsake the LORD God ... and honored his sons above God. God told Eli that his house would be destroyed ... and that no longer would HE honor a priest just because he descended for Aaron. God was planning only to honor those (priests) who honored him. I happen to believe that when Jesus called out the NAME of ELI, which means "My God" he was referring to the priesthood, who was once again forsaking God. The priests should have understood that his words referred back to OT scripture regarding the priesthood.
You shared:
Oh yes! The invisible God appeared among men as the super-natural Father ... and then appeared again as the natural Son... AND the SON has risen and been glorified after the likeness of the super-natural Father ... and now TWO glorified LORDS sit on their thrones representing the ONE GOD!!!
How do I know that Jesus, being the WORD of God, who was God and yet was simultaneously with God, has equal glory with the Father?
Easy answer ... look at a request that Jesus made in a prayer:
John 17:4-5 KJV
I (the fleshly LORD Jesus) have glorified you (LORD God the super-natural Father) on the earth: I have finished the work (in flesh) which you gave me to do.
And now, O Father, glorify you me with your own self with the glory which I had with you before the world was.
See! Lord Jesus, as the WORD, had shared the SAME glorious presence with Father before he appeared as flesh. He got that glory back ... and now appears next to the Father. Praise God!!!
You wrote:
The body of Emmanuel, Lord Jesus, died ... and the ONE God tasted physical human death through that body... but God can't die!!!
That's why God was able to pick that body back up again ... resurrect IT ... and take it to a heavenly place ... and glorify it!!!
This was the miracle ... the WAY God prepared for the salvation of mankind before the world was!!! Praise God.
You requested of me:
Yes, Praise God ... who said Isaiah 43:11:
I, (the invisible God) even I, am the LORD (the God who appeared to Israel) and without ME (as the invisible God and the visible LORD) there is no savior!!!
You wrote:
If anybody says JC is the same as Y-H-W-H then you are stuck with the fact that God is his own son and at the same time his own father.
Yep - I know this sort of miracle is impossible for mankind, but you limit God, who is the omni-present creator of everything, if you assume that HE could not accomplish this.
If you study the scripture with a more open mind to divine miracles, then you will see that God created a bodily form for himself - before he created the bodily form for Adam after ITS likeness - Genesis 1:26-27
KJV. Knowing this makes it easy to understand that God would use that image repeatedly. God not only shared his personal visible created likeness with the first Adam ... but also used IT himself as a super-natural presence- Exodus 24:9-12 KJV... and he also used IT to manifest the Promised Savior... Colossians 1:14-15 KJV.
Lord Jesus was the express image of the invisible God, the image, that was the first born of every creature.
IOW, God's IMAGE was the first born of every creature ... only after God had his IMAGE did HE share ITs likeness with the first Adam.
You wrote.
Then you are stuck with the fact that when JC prays to his father, God is praying to himself.
Yes, God the Son - appearing as his own son ... as an individual with flesh, was able to pray to God the Father, who was the divine God appearing as an individual with a heavenly super-natural body.
There is ONE invisible spiritual God ... but HE was/is able to appear in multiples simultaneously and of differing essences.
Besides, Jesus gave us a hint of why he prayed publicly before others. It was so people would understand that LORD God the Father, whom the Jews were aware, was working through him. Obviously these prayers of Jesus to the Father, to which you have referred were public prayers ... for some individual recorded them in the scriptures.
You quoted one of Jesus's prayers and commented:
Luke 22:41-42: “and He knelt down and began to pray, saying, "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done."
So here God has a different will than himself???
There is a great example in Genesis 18-19 where THREE super-natural men visited Abram ... Abram referred to all three of them by the same name or title. The KJ Bible uses the term LORD as to how he address THEM. If you follow the activities of three LORDs, you will find that they work in ONE accord to accomplish God's will ... but along the way they each have freewill to change their minds and change their planned activities simultaneously.
So the fact that God the son, who was also an individual appearing in mortal flesh, is about to endure humiliation, torture, and a long death is lamenting the pain that he knows he is about to endure...is not unreasonable. Yet, you know that Jesus did not follow the fear stemming from his human flesh ... but only did what the Father had planned from the Start. Yes, I would say that God, as the Son, dreaded tasting a painful death... and may have had thoughts of whether there could be another WAY... but there wasn't. The living flesh of the Son had to taste death.
Even in heaven JC is subjected to the Father, according to Corinthians 15:28, Matthew 20:23, Fillipens 2:9, and others.
So God is subjected to himself???
Yes, I think you will realize that the divine LORD Jesus was also subjected to many of the laws of nature of this created world. He was appearing with mortal flesh ... He grew tired, needed food, and water, could be killed. God subject himself to our condition in order to rescue us out of our condition.
You wrote:
When JC was hanging at the cross, he cried out: “My God, my God, why did you forsake me?” Matthew 27:46
So God forsake himself???
He called out Eli, Eli ... which can be interpreted as My God My God ... but is was also the name of the LAST priest that was accepted unconditionally by God. Read I Samuel 2:27-35. It was Eli that forsake the LORD God ... and honored his sons above God. God told Eli that his house would be destroyed ... and that no longer would HE honor a priest just because he descended for Aaron. God was planning only to honor those (priests) who honored him. I happen to believe that when Jesus called out the NAME of ELI, which means "My God" he was referring to the priesthood, who was once again forsaking God. The priests should have understood that his words referred back to OT scripture regarding the priesthood.
You shared:
Collossians 3:1; “set your hearts on things above, where Christ is seated at the right hand of God.”
God is sitting on his own right hand???
Oh yes! The invisible God appeared among men as the super-natural Father ... and then appeared again as the natural Son... AND the SON has risen and been glorified after the likeness of the super-natural Father ... and now TWO glorified LORDS sit on their thrones representing the ONE GOD!!!
How do I know that Jesus, being the WORD of God, who was God and yet was simultaneously with God, has equal glory with the Father?
Easy answer ... look at a request that Jesus made in a prayer:
John 17:4-5 KJV
I (the fleshly LORD Jesus) have glorified you (LORD God the super-natural Father) on the earth: I have finished the work (in flesh) which you gave me to do.
And now, O Father, glorify you me with your own self with the glory which I had with you before the world was.
See! Lord Jesus, as the WORD, had shared the SAME glorious presence with Father before he appeared as flesh. He got that glory back ... and now appears next to the Father. Praise God!!!
You wrote:
God died at the cross, slaughtered by his own creatures?
If so, who resurrected him?
The body of Emmanuel, Lord Jesus, died ... and the ONE God tasted physical human death through that body... but God can't die!!!
That's why God was able to pick that body back up again ... resurrect IT ... and take it to a heavenly place ... and glorify it!!!
This was the miracle ... the WAY God prepared for the salvation of mankind before the world was!!! Praise God.
You requested of me:
Remember there is only one God: Y-H-W-H who IS one.
"Hear Israel, Y-H-W-H is our God, Y-H-W-H is ONE!" Deut 6:4
"All the peoples walk each in the name of his god, but as for us; we will walk in the name of Y-H-W-H our God forever and ever!" Micah 4:5
Yes, Praise God ... who said Isaiah 43:11:
I, (the invisible God) even I, am the LORD (the God who appeared to Israel) and without ME (as the invisible God and the visible LORD) there is no savior!!!