"It only gives an example of a woman. I would apply it to both genders. Tell me, why do you think this mutilation is not mentioned for men?"
YOU might, but the TEXT sure doesn't. I think it singles women out because ancient Israel was a patriarchial society. And women were treated as chattel (especially those married women who the Israelites were commanded to kill, and the virgins they were allowed to seize as fruits of conquest). An attack on the male privy was an attack on the cultural and social fabric of the Hebrews and was judged harshly--by that culture.
Why are the only modern--or at least most vocal--advocates of hand chopping Muslims?
I asked: "Humiliating somebody doesn't really require you to mangle the person doing the humiliation, does it?"
To which you said:
"It does if it's sexual humiliation."
So ANY kind of sexual humiliation, no matter what gender is doing the humiliating, should be punishable by mutilation?
YOU might, but the TEXT sure doesn't. I think it singles women out because ancient Israel was a patriarchial society. And women were treated as chattel (especially those married women who the Israelites were commanded to kill, and the virgins they were allowed to seize as fruits of conquest). An attack on the male privy was an attack on the cultural and social fabric of the Hebrews and was judged harshly--by that culture.
Why are the only modern--or at least most vocal--advocates of hand chopping Muslims?
I asked: "Humiliating somebody doesn't really require you to mangle the person doing the humiliation, does it?"
To which you said:
"It does if it's sexual humiliation."
So ANY kind of sexual humiliation, no matter what gender is doing the humiliating, should be punishable by mutilation?