Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
doggieduff,doogieduff said:Jerry, you missed my entire point. The burden of proof is on you to prove that the Lord as a man is omnipresent to which I don't think you can.
The question is in regard to the Lord's "knowledge":
I will go down now, and see whether they have done altogether according to the cry of it, which is come unto me; and if not, I will know"(Gen.18:21).
If we take this verse literally then we must believe that the Lord had no "knowledge" of whether or not "they have done altogether according to the cry of it"
In other words,we must believe that the Lord did not know what was going on in those cities until He went to investigate.
I have already quoted the following verse to you but yet it seems to mean nothing to you:When the Lord made that statement in Gen. 18, He was not omnipresent and thus needed to go to Sodom and Gomorrah.
"The eyes of the LORD are in every place, beholding the evil and the good"(Prov.15:3).
This is obviously saying that He sees everything that is going on in the earth.
And again,the following verse that I provided also seems to mean nothing to you:
""Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in His sight: but all things are naked and opened unto the eyes of Him with whom we have to do"(Heb 4:13).
Here is the translation from the NASB:
"And there is no creature hidden from His sight, but all things are open and laid bare to the eyes of Him with whom we have to do"(Heb.4:13).
If there is no creature hidden from His sight and He sees everything,then how in the world could He not "know" what was going on in the wicked cities?
OK,doggieduff,if the Lord is not ignorant of what is going on in the earth then why would He have to go down to see whether or not "they have done altogether according to the cry of it"?I never said God is ignorant of what is going on in the earth. Please don't misquote me.
In His grace,--Jerry
”Dispensationalism Made Easy”
http://gracebeacon.net/studies/shugart-dispensationalism_made_easy.html