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Originally posted by Scrimshaw
But wait!! If he considered having his security and safety threatened to be "wrong", then he would also consider murder to be "wrong" since murder is the ultimate "threat" to one's "security and safety" (not to mention the security and safety of his wife and infant son!)
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Originally posted by Eireann
Note your key word here: "IF"
How about you quit your semantical tap dance and provide even ONE example of any moral system that believes it is morally "right" for their own security and safety to be threatened. Find even one example and I'll agree with you that "if" is the keyword above.
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If he considered the murder of his wife and son "wrong" then even in his convoluted moral system, murder was still "wrong" at least to some degree, thus, the universal/absolute moral against murder still exists.
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Again, you're presupposing that he does consider the murder of his wife and son "wrong," and not just a threatening act.
Then that would mean that he thinks a "threatening act" is wrong! Well guess what? Murder is a "threaten act", thus, he would also think murder is wrong! You keep making the same circular arguments over and over again. It's getting ridiculous.
Remember, we're not talking about our society or culture here, we're talking about a culture that has a completely different set of beliefs and standards than our own. You're trying to apply Western standards to a culture where they may not apply.
There is not a culture on the planet that believes "murder" is morally "right". The moral opposition to murder is not a "western" belief. It is a worldwide belief and has existed in every society since the dawn of man. If I am wrong about that, all you'd have to do to refute me is provide even ONE example of a society that did not consider murder morally WRONG.
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Oh please. Let's be real. He thought it was morally WRONG to have what was taken from him taken, therefore, he wanted to take something back. (Revenge)
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So you assume because that's the way you, a Westerner, would think.
This has nothing to do with Westerners! It's a
transcultural fact that there has never been a human society that did not consider murder morally WRONG. The definition of murder says "unlawful killing". So the very definition of murder means that it is an act that can never be "lawful", and therefore, never morally right.
Perhaps for him it's protection or recompense, not revenge.
Maybe to him, but who cares! Maybe to Jeffrey Dahmer eating people was a simply a way of exercising a "healthy diet". I am not talking about individual wackos here. There are plenty of individual lunatics with completely insane moral codes. That's not what we're discussing. We are discussing moral SYSTEMS, the ones established by human SOCIETIES. The ones that establish LEGAL SYSTEMS. None have ever existed that did not consider murder morally WRONG.
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The definition of murder is the "intentional killing of the innocent".
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Really? And where did you find this definition? I have three different dictionaries in my house, and I can't find that definition in any of them.
Oh for love of the ID! If you disagree with my definition of murder, what in the seven hells do you think the difference between "killing" and "murder" is then? What is the difference between murder and manslaugter?
How do you know that there does not exist, has never existed and can never exist such a society? Just how extensively have you studied to have this expertise in every culture and society that is, has ever been and will ever be since the dawn of man?
You're right. I could be totally wrong! Maybe there is some society that considered murder morally "right". Now, care to tell us what society that is?? Go ahead. Don't be shy. :chuckle:
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Thus, absolute morality against "murder" exists. There is no loophole. There is no way around it. The more you try to argue against it the more foolish your arguments become.
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Well, I'll admit it'll certainly be hard for me to come up with a cogent argument if you keep redefining the terms just to fit your argument (i.e. murder = killing of the innocent.)
If murder ISN'T "intentional killing of the innocent", (which I assume is your argument?) then PRAY tell me what you think the difference between "murder" and "killing" is? You are proving to be a very dishonest debater. Your arguments continue to get sauteed, but you refuse to concede them.
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If the murdering party does not see the victim as "innocent" then they wouldn't be committing "murder" according to their perception. According to their perception, they would be merely "killing", not "murdering". In order for it to be "murder", in their view, they'd have to see the victim as "innocent".
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Unfortunately, you had to completely redefine "murder" in order to arrive at that conclusion.
And of course you completed failed to show how my "redefinition" of murder is incorrect. Let's take it apart word by word, and you tell me which word does not apply to murder, K??
- intentional
- killing
- of the
- innocent
So which part of my "redefinition" doesn't apply to the act of murder? Are you going to claim that murder is UN-intentional? Is it NOT "killing"? The victim is NOT "innocent"? Unless you plan to argue that my definition of murder is inaccurate, your argument on this point is utterly meaningless.
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However, the perception of the murdering party always considers it's own kind to be "innocent"
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Since when? I'm Irish, but I don't consider someone to be innocent simply because they're Irish.
Holy Toledo. I think that is the most thick-headed thing I've heard all week! When did I ever say that "kind" means race or geographical heritage? Please reread my comment. I was talking about perpetrators of murder when there is more than one. (Notice the keywords above - "murdering party"? )
In case you are foggy on what I meant by "murdering party", here is an example...... Let's say four friends got together and decided they were going to murder a bunch of people in a store. They would be the "murdering party." If one of the friends decided to murder one of the other friends, the others in the murdering party would consider him to have done something morally WRONG. Why? Because they are on the same team. They are friends. They are the same "kind", and thus, while they consider it morally okay to kill the people in the store, they would NOT consider it morally okay to kill
eachother. Get the point now?
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Thus, the killing of it's own kind would always be viewed as "murder", and would always be viewed as WRONG. Therefore, the wrongness of murder is still universal and has absolute presence in all human societies, regardless of their cultural worldviews.
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You're right and you're wrong. You're right that "murder" is probably wrong in all societies.
It is wrong in all societies, therefore it is absolutely WRONG and will remain absolutely wrong until proven otherwise.
However, you're wrong about what classifies an act as "murder." Murder is not an act, it's a motive and a degree of lawfulness. The act is killing. What determines whether or not it is a murder depends on whether or not the specific circumstances involved in the act of killing are permitted or proscribed by the respective law.
Yes, and the respective laws are determined by.....guess what? The society's MORAL SYSTEM. There has never existed a society that had a moral system (which means legal system too) that did not consider murder to be morally/legally WRONG. Not a one!
Actually, since murder isn't actually an act, it is sort of moot to say "murder is wrong," since the conundrum is in trying to find an act that is universally considered "murder." But since the laws that regulate the right to kill differ from culture to culture, then "murder" is a very subjective term.
The definition of "murder" DOES NOT differ from culture to culture. Every culture has "intentionally killing of innocence" as part of it's definition of murder. There are NO exceptions to this rule. If I am wrong, all you have to do to refute me is find an example of even ONE society that does NOT consider the "intentional killing of the innocent" to be murder, or morally WRONG.