PneumaPsucheSoma
TOL Subscriber
1John 2:2 One Calvinist commentary says that John means 'Jews' when he says us, such that 'whole world' means 'not just we Jews.
I don't know everyone's answer, but I don't believe this necessarily had to be made by a Calvinist. That is, any scholar could understand John to be saying it with such a distinction. For instance, Clarke also suggests the same rendering of the text and Barnes says rather that "propitiation" should be seen as appeasing God's wrath by Christ's action, but not removing sins of unrepentant sinners. Most, as I'm understanding, disagree with a universal application of atonement, Calvinist or no.
Exactly. The context is to include non-Jews. But you can't convince those who are self-taught and operate according to their own false autonomy apart from scripture and its actual meaning.