Arminians' Dilemma

meshak

BANNED
Banned
Originally Posted by patrick jane View Post



PPS has joined forces with shak

Hey PJ,

PPS is more in your side than mine. so you should not be so hysterical about him.

You guys are pathetic arguing over the words.

You don't seem to have much of self-esteem.

If you take Jesus' word seriously you will have confidence in your faith.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
This is more double talk. Did Christ die for the sins of the non-elect, yes or no?

Jesus Christ was made (poieo) sin (singular anarthrous) for all mankind of all ages of human history from creation to judgment.

If you knew what that meant in non-English, you wouldn't have to be both beligerent and obtuse in desperate ignorance and arrogance.

When you can tell me the explicit difference between articular and anarthrous Greek nouns in both the singular and the plural; and you can authentically apply that understanding to the words all rendered in English as some form of the word "sin"; then I can have a meaningful discussion with you beyond your false presuppositions that have caused you to maintain false doctrine.

But if you actually ever understand those Greek noun forms, the only conversation between us would be your humble admission of ignorance and an apology for your inapplicable tyrade of nothingness and nonsense.

Why not be a faithful steward of God's word instead of abusing it from your own false autonomous fallacies?
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
It's not about saved or unsaved, elect or non-elect. It's not about labelling people. Those who are in Christ are timelessly in Christ. As Luther says, you are not a real person until you are regenerated in Christ. Only those who are in Christ have real existence anyway. Everyone else has a shadow of what God intended for life.

So is Christ's sacrifice applicable to all? Technically, it "can be". But that's because it is not about individual acts of sin, but about the quality, character, and activity of the universal sin-condition. But it is only applied and reckoned to those who are in Him.

If the death of Christ did not accomplish victory over all evil/dysfunction, then it was not true victory. But of course it was victory over all dysfunction. Christ, as the incarnation of God's righteousness, fills all unrighteousness with Himself. But that unrighteousness is not filled for those outside of communion with Him.

It's not about separating elect and non-elect, it's about God as the source of all salvation, who timelessly has communion with those in Christ, regardless of "when" "in time" their communion with Him begins. He is beyond time. There is no "beginning" for Him. He "always" knows those who are called by His name.

God does not actively damn those outside of communion. They were already born dead. They remain dead. He is not obligated to save anyone.

Amen and amen and amen and amen and amen and amen and amen!!!!!!!!
 

Epoisses

New member
Jesus Christ was made (poieo) sin (singular anarthrous) for all mankind of all ages of human history from creation to judgment.

If you knew what that meant in non-English, you wouldn't have to be both beligerent and obtuse in desperate ignorance and arrogance.

When you can tell me the explicit difference between articular and anarthrous Greek nouns in both the singular and the plural; and you can authentically apply that understanding to the words all rendered in English as some form of the word "sin"; then I can have a meaningful discussion with you beyond your false presuppositions that have caused you to maintain false doctrine.

But if you actually ever understand those Greek noun forms, the only conversation between us would be your humble admission of ignorance and an apology for your inapplicable tyrade of nothingness and nonsense.

Why not be a faithful steward of God's word instead of abusing it from your own false autonomous fallacies?

LOL. So did Jesus die for everybody or not? You're an idiot philosopher who can't give a straight answer. Probably some bald guy in the seminary with a paper cut on his tongue.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
LOL. So did Jesus die for everybody or not? You're an idiot philosopher who can't give a straight answer. Probably some bald guy in the seminary with a paper cut on his tongue.

As I clearly said more than once... Jesus was made (poieo) sin (singular anarthrous) for all mankind for all ages from creation to judgment.

The reason you think I'm an idiot philosopher (while not knowing what either phileo OR sophos mean) is because you're too ignorant and arrogant to recognize the straighest answer you've ever been given.

At 53, I have nearly a full head of hair. I'm not at a seminary, though I'm planning to get a Doctorate in the next few years because of the widespread ignorance in the body such as yours. And I've rarely had any kind of paper cut.

I guess you have to lash out when you're too imbecilic to recognize your own errors from your own false autonomy without any real understanding of the meaning of scripture.

You don't understand God's timelessness and His incommunicable attributes. If you did, you wouldn't have to say anything you've said.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I just wanted to find out is Jesus is the savior of the world and I'm being obfuscated to death.

Not in the least; it's the inverse and you CAN'T even know it.

You were given the clearest and most direct answer in the history of the Christian faith. You just don't know what it means, which is the point.
 

meshak

BANNED
Banned
Originally Posted by Epoisses View Post

Probably some bald guy in the seminary with a paper cut on his tongue.

this is so Madist.

You seem to be so intimidated by PPS.

You need to read Jesus' word and have more confidence in your faith, friend.

Jesus' word is so powerful, dear.
 

Epoisses

New member
Not in the least; it's the inverse and you CAN'T even know it.

You were given the clearest and most direct answer in the history of the Christian faith. You just don't know what it means, which is the point.

No I wasn't and if you really understood you could give a straight answer. Obfuscation is the hallmark of unbelievers like you. Is Jesus Christ the savior of all mankind?
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I just wanted to find out is Jesus is the savior of the world and I'm being obfuscated to death.

Of course He is, just as scripture says. Have you ever considered that it's a battle for Monergism instead of being Monergism versus Synergism?

Your Monergism and personal sovereignty is quite intact. Functionally, you negate God's Monergism on your behalf. But you can't know what that means, either.

Sorry for your linguistic illiteracy and arrogant false presumptions. Not my fault. I'm not warring for my own Monergism.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
No I wasn't and if you really understood you could give a straight answer. Obfuscation is the hallmark of unbelievers like you. Is Jesus Christ the savior of all mankind?

LOL. Now I'm an unbeliever by your Monergistic judgment. That's very humorous, in a sad kind of way.

Yes, Jesus is the Savior of all mankind. I've said it repeatedly. He was made (poieo) sin (singular anarthrous) for all mankind for all earth ages from creation to judgment.

You're a trip, there, self-Monergism boy. LOL.
 

Aletheiophile

New member
No I wasn't and if you really understood you could give a straight answer. Obfuscation is the hallmark of unbelievers like you. Is Jesus Christ the savior of all mankind?

Do you not see that he actually explains things quite clearly and explicitly? I'm very thankful for his kind explanations of complex concepts.
 
  • Like
Reactions: Lon

Lon

Well-known member
I just wanted to find out is Jesus is the savior of the world and I'm being obfuscated to death.

1John 2:2 One Calvinist commentary says that John means 'Jews' when he says 'us,' such that 'whole world' means 'not just we Jews.'
I don't know everyone's answer, but I don't believe this necessarily had to be made by a Calvinist. That is, any scholar could understand John to be saying it with such a distinction. For instance, Clarke also suggests the same rendering of the text and Barnes says rather that "propitiation" should be seen as appeasing God's wrath by Christ's action, but not removing sins of unrepentant sinners. Most, as I'm understanding, disagree with a universal application of atonement, Calvinist or no.
 

Epoisses

New member
Of course He is, just as scripture says. Have you ever considered that it's a battle for Monergism instead of being Monergism versus Synergism?

Your Monergism and personal sovereignty is quite intact. Functionally, you negate God's Monergism on your behalf. But you can't know what that means, either.

Sorry for your linguistic illiteracy and arrogant false presumptions. Not my fault. I'm not warring for my own Monergism.

So Jesus Christ died for and saved all mankind at the cross? All you on record as agreeing with that?
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
No I wasn't and if you really understood you could give a straight answer. Obfuscation is the hallmark of unbelievers like you. Is Jesus Christ the savior of all mankind?

Are you a proponent of Univeral Atonement or Universal Salvation?

Is Jesus the Savior of ALL mankind, with all mankind being saved?
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
So Jesus Christ died for and saved all mankind at the cross? All you on record as agreeing with that?

I'm "on board" with the very clear and succinct answer I've given to your question/s; not your obfuscatory nonsense of continued wrong questions from ignorance.

Are you a Universalist?
 

Aletheiophile

New member
So Jesus Christ died for and saved all mankind at the cross? All you on record as agreeing with that?

Your behavior in this discussion betrays that you do not understand what atonement/propitiation/reconciliation/salvation/justification even means.

Did the atonement sacrifice at Yom Kippur cover the sins of everyone in the world? Or just those in Israel? Hm...
 
Top