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[Nick M]

I believe it’s more accurate because HE SPOKE

I have to reject it. It isn't what we believe or think. You can think it, you can feel it all you want. It says "Logos" in Greek.



This reminds me of Noah's ark. The Hebrew word is only used twice in the Bible. For Noah, and baby Moses. It has a meaning in Hebrew. It is a chest, coffin, cage (as in a zoon) or coffin. There is a Hebrew word for ship/boat. And it is not the ark. But people want the Durupinar formation to be the ark, so they ignore what the scripture actually says. By the way, you can copy from 2 Thessalonians 2 Latin Vulgate into the google translator, and it says something different than what the claimed translation is. The same thing with Strongs. People want it to say something that it does not say. I am referring there to the departure of the church. It doesn't say rebellion, falling away, great revolt, or anything else. Worker bees who are self righteous changed the translation. But the rapture is a different thread.

I don't read any Greek or Hebrew. But I have read what a few other experts who do read it say. And sometimes they say our beloved KJV is just wrong in the translation.

 

[Nick M]

The common language of the day in that area was Greek.

Historically we know the Romans made him carry his sign with his crime printed in Greek, Latin, and Hebrew. Greek then is like English now.

 

[glorydaz]

I've never heard of anyone suggesting this. Seems like a big stretch.

Some people say the common language for John would be Aramaic.

 

[Right Divider]

Some people say the common language for John would be Aramaic.

The manuscripts that we have are predominately Greek.

 

[glorydaz]

I have to reject it. It isn't what we believe or think. You can think it, you can feel it all you want. It says "Logos" in Greek.

View attachment 13189

This reminds me of Noah's ark. The Hebrew word is only used twice in the Bible. For Noah, and baby Moses. It has a meaning in Hebrew. It is a chest, coffin, cage (as in a zoon) or coffin. There is a Hebrew word for ship/boat. And it is not the ark. But people want the Durupinar formation to be the ark, so they ignore what the scripture actually says. By the way, you can copy from 2 Thessalonians 2 Latin Vulgate into the google translator, and it says something different than what the claimed translation is. The same thing with Strongs. People want it to say something that it does not say. I am referring there to the departure of the church. It doesn't say rebellion, falling away, great revolt, or anything else. Worker bees who are self righteous changed the translation. But the rapture is a different thread.

I don't read any Greek or Hebrew. But I have read what a few other experts who do read it say. And sometimes they say our beloved KJV is just wrong in the translation.

So I guess my problem is with the translation that calls the Creator of the universe Logic. What happens with all the times we read, “God said…”? Who exactly speaks, and who became flesh? It’s confusing.

So, just maybe the KJV version is referring to the Word (Spoken into being) instead of how the Greeks translated it. It just seems to fit better, perhaps.

 

[glorydaz]

The manuscripts that we have are predominately Greek.

Check this out. John 1 in the Hebrew says the WORD is Devar Hashem, and means “the words of the master God“ literally means the name, and it’s used all throughout the Old Testament.

That actually makes sense to me.
and than in revelation where his name is called the word of god…..

 

[Nick M]

It’s confusing.

And word isn't?That makes no sense. I think saying the Logic (logos) was with God makes perfect sense.

And, we don't have to understand him. It is super natural. We have to believe him.

 

[Clete]

Sure I did. I used scripture to explain scripture. I probably could have given other examples in the original post.

Saying it doesn't make it so, Nick. Your OP is still right there for the whole world to read. There is no explanation of what Jesus meant nor how to use what He said as a test anywhere in that post. If you explained it elsewhere, please just give me the post number and I'll read it.

 

[Right Divider]

Check this out. John 1 in the Hebrew says the WORD is Devar Hashem, and means “the words of the master God“ literally means the name, and it’s used all throughout the Old Testament.

Who translated the Greek to Hebrew?

Why would anyone want to do that?

 

[glorydaz]

Who translated the Greek to Hebrew?

Why would anyone want to do that?

I think it’s the other way around. John was a Jew. Wasn’t that his native tongue?

 

[glorydaz]

And word isn't?That makes no sense. I think saying the Logic (logos) was with God makes perfect sense.

And, we don't have to understand him. It is super natural. We have to believe him.

Yeah, it could be either or both, as far as that goes. I can’t help but lean toward Word….speaking something into being. There’s something about speaking rather than thinking something into being. But, back to being born again, was Jesus telling Nicodemus the nation had to be born again? That’s the part I really wonder about.

 

[Right Divider]

I think it’s the other way around. John was a Jew. Wasn’t that his native tongue?

Again, there are no Hebrew manuscripts for that book. Where are you getting these ideas?

 

[glorydaz]

Again, there are no Hebrew manuscripts for that book. Where are you getting these ideas?

Do you have proof of that? You say, do you not, that John was writing to the Jews? You don’t think he wrote to them in their own language?

I‘ve been away from this board for quite some time, so it’s hard to tell where I got these ideas. I’m confident there is a basis right there in the Bible. I wonder if it’s partly due to what’s going on in the Middle East. I’m watching believers witnessing to the Jews using the Old Testament to prove that Jesus is the Messiah. Many are believing. We’ll see many more as the day is fast approaching.

Besides, as I look into this subject further, I see I am not alone to want to delve into this. What can it hurt? I think Hebrews 1 supports the use of the Word. In these last days has spoken unto us by His Son. We actually see that use all throughout the Old Testament.

 

[Nick M]

I’m watching believers witnessing to the Jews using the Old Testament to prove that Jesus is the Messiah. Many are believing.

Paul reasoned from the scriptures in the synagogue. According to Luke. And of course the Holy Spirit.

 

[Nick M]

8 The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear the sound of it, but cannot tell where it comes from and where it goes. So is everyone who is born of the Spirit.”

You can't tell where they came from or where they went. Like the wind. Nicodemus was supposed to know. Are you born again according to what the Lord Jesus Christ stated right there? Are there examples of this in the New Testament? From Luke.

31 Then their eyes were opened and they knew Him; and He vanished from their sight.

35 And they told about the things that had happened on the road, and how He was known to them in the breaking of bread. 36 Now as they said these things, Jesus Himself stood in the midst of them, and said to them, “Peace to you.” 37 But they were terrified and frightened, and supposed they had seen a spirit.

Retold in John. At least I think it is the same event.

19 Then, the same day at evening, being the first day of the week, when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled, for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood in the midst, and said to them, “Peace be with you.”

I'm just trying to help you with your bad theology. We all have had it, some longer than others. As you can see, he met the conditions of John 3, which is prophecy. Nicodemus was supposed to know. Martha knew, Nicodemus did not. According to the Lord Jesus Christ in John 3:8, do you meet what he says is of those that are born of the Spirit?

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You can't tell where he came from or where he went. And then examples, he vanished from their site.

 

[glorydaz]

Paul reasoned from the scriptures in the synagogue. According to Luke. And of course the Holy Spirit.

Very true. I guess that’s why the Bible is still being used today. Must be something special about that book.

No one quotes from the New Testament except for us Johnny-come-lately folks. By that, of course, I mean those in the church age.

 

[JudgeRightly]

Do you have proof of that? You say, do you not, that John was writing to the Jews? You don’t think he wrote to them in their own language?

The language of scholars at the time was Greek.

The language of the scriptures Jesus used was Greek (He quoted from the Septuagint).

All of the manuscripts of the New Testament we have are in Greek, and only parts of them are in Aramaic. None of them are in Hebrew, and there is no evidence theyv'e been translated from Hebrew. (There would be certain phrases that wouldn't make sense in Greek that would have been translated from Hebrew that only make sense in Hebrew; there are a few examples of this in the Septuagint.)

John (and everyone else from Israel, at the time), if anything, likely spoke Aramaic, not Hebrew.

What evidence do you have that they spoke and wrote in Hebrew?

I‘ve been away from this board for quite some time, so it’s hard to tell where I got these ideas. I’m confident there is a basis right there in the Bible. I wonder if it’s partly due to what’s going on in the Middle East. I’m watching believers witnessing to the Jews using the Old Testament to prove that Jesus is the Messiah. Many are believing. We’ll see many more as the day is fast approaching.

Let us know when it's the last minutes.

Besides, as I look into this subject further, I see I am not alone to want to delve into this. What can it hurt? I think Hebrews 1 supports the use of the Word. In these last days has spoken unto us by His Son. We actually see that use all throughout the Old Testament.

The "last days" there was referring to the time Jesus was on Earth.

 

[glorydaz]

The language of scholars at the time was Greek.

The language of the scriptures Jesus used was Greek (He quoted from the Septuagint).

All of the manuscripts of the New Testament we have are in Greek, and only parts of them are in Aramaic. None of them are in Hebrew, and there is no evidence theyv'e been translated from Hebrew. (There would be certain phrases that wouldn't make sense in Greek that would have been translated from Hebrew that only make sense in Hebrew; there are a few examples of this in the Septuagint.)

John (and everyone else from Israel, at the time), if anything, likely spoke Aramaic, not Hebrew.

What evidence do you have that they spoke and wrote in Hebrew?



Let us know when it's the last minutes.



The "last days" there was referring to the time Jesus was on Earth.

Ah, I can see from this that we have a lot to discuss.

 

[glorydaz]

The language of scholars at the time was Greek.

The language of the scriptures Jesus used was Greek (He quoted from the Septuagint).

All of the manuscripts of the New Testament we have are in Greek, and only parts of them are in Aramaic. None of them are in Hebrew, and there is no evidence theyv'e been translated from Hebrew. (There would be certain phrases that wouldn't make sense in Greek that would have been translated from Hebrew that only make sense in Hebrew; there are a few examples of this in the Septuagint.)

John (and everyone else from Israel, at the time), if anything, likely spoke Aramaic, not Hebrew.

What evidence do you have that they spoke and wrote in Hebrew?



Let us know when it's the last minutes.



The "last days" there was referring to the time Jesus was on Earth.

I can’t remember how to work this quoting stuff, so I’ll just mush it altogether. I’ve read that Hebrew manuscripts date back to Moses, and there are certainly a lot of Hebrew sounding names early on.

I’m a bit taken aback there would be any doubt that Hebrew was spoken by the Jews back in Biblical days.

I know God confused the languages after the tower of Babel. What common language was used back then, would be my question to you.

I was speaking of “these“ last days, not the days when Jesus walked the earth. Too much prophecy had yet to be fulfilled for it to have been back then. Sorry this is such a jumbled mess.

 

[Right Divider]

I’m a bit taken aback there would be any doubt that Hebrew was spoken by the Jews back in Biblical days.

We don't doubt that Jews would know Hebrew.
That does not mean that they had to write in Hebrew.

Again, do you have any evidence of original Hebrew manuscripts for John?