glorydaz
Well-known member
Romans 3:9 "all alike, under the power of sin..."There is legitimacy of going to the text in question, but we also must understand the context and proof of Paul's for quoting it. Romans 3:9,10 is the context and thus he is using the quote from Psalm to bolster his point, not about the 'fool' but about both Jews and gentiles, both together as he says "....[Jew and gentile] alike, under the power of sin..." Somehow, we didn't just sin, but were under its very power, all of us.
In the full context, but Paul is talking specifically about Jews and Gentiles, both, under the power of sin specifically whether they know the Law or not. His argument is that there is to be no consideration of Jew/gentile distinctions: We all need a Savior, no exceptions. Getting caught up with the "fool" we'd still be left with the same conclusion: Savior, no exceptions.
Well, you did add under the POWER of sin, but I'll accept that because once we go against our conscience and sin, sin has a power over us that cannot be denied. Not that it makes us sin continually, but it does make it easier to sin again and again. What none of that "reasoning" of yours does do, however is prove, in any way, that we inherited Adam's sin.
I showed you the words, "there are none righteous" had righteous people right there in the quote, so you can dance around that fact if you want, but it's not helping your argument.