Hi everyone,
Knight said:
Now you can answer... what was God's "good" purpose in torturing Jews through Hitler's hands?
Can anyone know all God’s purposes? This would require knowing all the future. Yet the Jewish people returned to their homeland, arguably because of this persecution. They also have tremendous weight when they stand up to speak, those who went through this, Mr. Wiesel, he would be one.
Now you need to answer, as Hilston was implying, what was God’s purpose in not stopping Hitler? You say it was free will, to have free will, such evil must be allowed. Why so?
I see no special and drastic limit on free will that would have been made by ending Hitler’s rule. And I also have another question, but that can wait.
Knight said:
Jim, tell us which of the following two options is true according to the Bible...
1. The potter takes the vessel that is marred in his hand and makes it again into something good.
or...
2. The potter intentionally mares the vessel and then makes it again claiming he did some "good" by fixing his own marring.
Not to speak for Jim, but who marred the vessel in the example?
Was it not the potter? So then the analogy does answer your question.
God_Is_Truth said:
God is a man, but God is not only a man.
God is not a man, though, and simply because Jesus is a member of the Trinity, does not make God a man. The Triune God did not become a man in the incarnation, remember Jesus praying to the Father.
It was true when it was written. At that time God was not a man.
So then again I ask if God suddenly could change his mind, after the incarnation.
It connects God to man to say that he doesn't repent or change his mind like we do.
Why so? This would seem to separate God from man. And again, “like we do” is not in the text.
We have dozens of verses stating that God changes his mind…
Yet there is another meaning for this word which fits quite well, why may I not read that meaning in these various places?
I despair of ever being able to get this point across, to any Open Theist.
It is only when we believe that God can't change in any way that we start declaring a couple verses to be absolutes and declaring dozens of others to be figurative…
Well, again, I’m not claiming them to be figurative, I’m claiming the word has a different meaning than “repent or change of mind.” And I don’t hold that God cannot change in any way whatsoever.
God never promises something he doesn't intend to give. However, the settled view could not hold to this for he knows exactly what will happen and whether or not his promise will actually come about.
I would think that would provide just the ability to know what could be given, and God does give all his intends to, and also does all he says he will do.
Numbers 23:19 Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill?
The Open View would say yes, yes he does, here.
Lee: God does not take back his words unless circumstances require him to, or God does not speak words he doesn't mean? What I am wondering is what specifically these words mean here.
God_Is_Truth: Both, correct.
But I meant what is the meaning of the phrase, if it doesn’t mean God doesn’t take back his words. I didn’t mean “What is your theological view in this area?” I’m asking for a translator version, taking these words, and translating the meaning into English. What was the phrase Isaiah meant, please, grammatically defensible? I also insist on seeing said interpretation here on "he does not take back his words" in a commentary! Even an Open Theist one...
Blessings,
Lee