"The same, but different" means your answer is "yes, and no?" I read what you wrote, as a possible explanation, but it doesn't explain enough (to me) for why the answer isn't just "yes," or "no," rather than "yes, and no," which is how I read "the same, but different:" "Yes and No."
The passage doesn't read to me like it's nuanced, just ambiguous, which is like John 1:1 KJV, but in that case we've got John 1:14 KJV to remove ambiguity, but I don't know that there's any such verse to help with the ambiguity in 1st Corinthians 9:5 KJV.
Maybe it's more nuanced than I'm seeing. I just want to know if Paul, in that verse, 1st Corinthians 9:5 KJV, means that Peter is among the "other apostles," or not. I don't understand why he would be, and would not be, at the same time, given the context, particularly the thrust of this portion of his epistle to this diocese (the Church diocese in Corinth), in which I see what Right Divider said:
That's what it looks like to me too.
I don't know what happened to the Corinthian church; they were obviously a diocese once, Paul wrote two epistles to them, and maybe 40 years later, the archbishop of the Roman diocese (which is still around) wrote an epistle to them that is also preserved. Have you ever compared the Corinthian epistles from Paul, and from Clement, just to see if there's any overlap or contrast between their content, or development? It's just a thought, it would be interesting to see any differences between 1st & 2nd Corinthians, and Clement's epistle to that same Church diocese.