"hast made us"
You are not "us."
That's your assertion. I got that much. I am hoping you can square your assertion with Rev 5.
John W said:
The nation of Israel-a kingdom of priests....
Exodus 19:6 KJV and ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.
Yes, and at that time they were the only ones to whom God offered that opportunity.
BTW, how'd it go?
John W said:
The Jordan river....the initiation rights, of the kingdom of priests......Priests, per Lev., Deut., had to go through the water....
Interesting theory, where in the bible does it make this association?
John W said:
All the people/ things to be "baptized", it was the priest who stood foremost. Exodus 29 sets forth the procedure for induction into the priest's office, the "initiation rights", if you will. Two very important steps of consecration are included:
First , cleansing-a washing with water:
"And Aaron and his sons thou shalt bring unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, and SHALT WASH THEM WITH WATER." Exodus 29:4 KJV
Second, the anointing with oil:
"Then shalt thou TAKE THE ANOINTING OIL, AND POUR IT UPON HIS HEAD, AND ANOINT HIM." Exodus 29:7 KJV
The Lord Jesus Christ.....At the Jordan....The Holy Spirit upon Him=anointing......Then, through the water..................
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So far so good. Jesus DEFINITELY is the best example of a Priest and a (really THE) King.
Now, how does any of this answer my question?
Rev 5, which you haven't addressed yet, is God's inspired word where John overhears the elders before the throne praising the Lord because by His sacrifice (not the giving of the Law as per Moses) He has redeemed to God a people from every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation.
And the same (both Jews and Gentiles per Rev 5:9) He made kings and priests.
So how does this apply to 1 Peter 2:9?
Pretty simple.
Something happened to the wall that divided Jew and Gentile on the cross.
Ephesians 2:14-19 Is the answer.
On the cross, the dividing wall of hostility was broken down in His flesh and consequently the gentile believer is no longer a stranger and an alien but a fellow citizen.
So the "us" really is
us if we are in Christ.
And then Rev 5 makes all the sense in the world, because Jesus really did redeem kings and priests from every nation.
So maybe you can try again with question one, why did Paul preach the gospel of grace to the same audience Peter is writing to in 1 Peter?