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Can't a force for good hijack a plane belonging to the force for evil?

Once you call him a vigilante, you define him as being outside of the proper authority. But a "hijacker" who hijacks a plane being flown by a criminal and full of criminals, could be a government operative who is vested by the state to commandeer the plane and kill the criminals.

If he's part of the government, then isn't it within his authority, assuming it's the right part of the government?

It seems like the camp of the saints is much smaller than the nation's that surround it. Revelation 20:8-9 KJV — And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea...

But the "being on hold" makes the OT interpretations even more important to understand, since the people now to be involved weren't in existence when the prophecy was made.

Yes, I agree. If God is "setting up", that's one particular way He directs the end He's looking for. But when the false prophet and the antichrist are thrown into the lake of fire, it is not because God planned for a particular person to be born that could never repent, right? That's the part of...

Romans 13:4 KJV — For he (the ruler or government) is the minister of God to thee for good. But if thou do that which is evil, be afraid; for he beareth not the sword in vain: for he (the ruler or government) is the minister of God, a revenger to execute wrath upon him that doeth evil.

Why?

I'll need to put a list together

The bible was explicit about Nineveh being destroyed in 40 days, too.

If both the plane and the building were full of pedophiles, and only pedophiles, and the hijacker were a government employee fighting to bring justice for minors who had been raped and murdered, would it wrong.

Fir instance: If the antichrist is a person who is born close to the time of the prophetic fulfillment, then how does God know how he will act? Is it because of human nature, tainted by sin? Is it because of Satan's influence (and God knew Satan before the prophecies were written)? Or does God...

The antichrist, for instance. But let's take it to the other thread, if you don't mind. Thread 'Does Open Theism make us view eschatology differently?' https://theologyonline.com/threads/does-open-theism-make-us-view-eschatology-differently.60950/

It seems unreasonable to think that nobody will follow Satan. And mob-think is certainly a predictable force for evil, if not also for good sometimes (positive peer pressure). Based on 4000 years of experience, would the Holy Spirit be that uncertain that many would rebel?

Sure, but if you can, filter out the effects of MAD for the time being, to keep the topic as simple and direct as possible.

How God can know the future impacts what He tells us of it. So if He tells us of specific acts of specific people, then either it is because those people existed when the prophecy was written, or someone that existed at that time will be causing the actions, which is the type of determinism that...

I think that's all true, and I wonder if the open theism paradigm can help explain some of the inscrutable eschatology call passages Christians struggle to understand. I remember reading the Left Behind series up through the locusts with scorpion tails, and I felt there was an element missing...

Please be careful to fully quote the sentence, as it was confusing what you were responding to. Why do you think it is wrong to murder? What makes it a sin that exceeds God's authority as the creator? I'm not disagreeing, just curious where your thought processes are going.

I'm not saying, by the way, that I think the determination of what is just is something that comes from outside of God. But the question by Abraham recognized that God will always be just in His decisions, including wiping a city off the map along with its inhabitants.

They can "survive" any scripture, because they don't want to admit what it says.