The Septuagint, the B.C. Greek translation of the Old Testament, renders Isaiah 7:11 "virgin" as parthenos, which is ABSOLUTELY a VIRGIN (either male or female) that has zero sexual experience.
As well, a Hebrew couple were considered MARRIED, via a sacred ceremony, but did not come together to actually live together for one year, and were not permitted to have intimate relationships during this one year period.
As was the case with Adam, it was God that provided (created) the DNA. That DNA was created within Mary, which resulted in Yeshua Messiah. Hence, Jesus is called "the second Adam".
WAS MARY REALLY A VIRGIN?"Yes! Right up until the act by which she conceived her firstborn son Jesus, who was sired by Joseph ben Heli."
Isaiah 7: 14; Jewish Translation: Therefore, the Lord, of His own, shall give you a sign; behold, "THE YOUNG WOMAN" is with child, and she shall bear a son, and she shall call his name Immanuel."
Isaiah 7: 14; ERRONEOUS King James Translation: Therefore the Lord Himself will give you a sign: Behold, the "VIRGIN" shall conceive and bear a Son, and shall call His name Immanuel."
The Greek word Parthenos used in Matthew 1:23 ; is ambiguous but the Hebrew term "Almah" that is erroneously translated in some Christian bibles as "virgin" is absolute, and according to Young"s Analytical Concordance to the Bible, the Hebrew term "Almah," carries the meaning, (Concealment---unmarried female.)"
Go to "A Dictionary of Biblical Tradition in English Literature," by David Jeffery."
There you will find written, "Many scholars consider the new Revised Standard Version of the King James translation, which is probably the most widely used version of the English bible today, and considered by most modern scholars to be to be the most accurate translation of the Old Testament. It follows the modern consensus in translating "Almah" as "Young Woman" in Isaiah 7: 14."
In 1973, an ecumenical edition of RSV was approved by both Protestant and Catholic hierarchies, called the common bible. As a matter of fact, I have in front of me, A New English Translation of the Bible, published in 1970 and approved by the council of churches in England, Scotland, Wales, the Irish council of churches, the London Society of Friends, and the Methodist and Presbyterian churches of England. And what do we read in Isaiah 7: 14; "A young Woman is with child, and she will bear a son." I also have before me The Good News Bible, catholic Study Edition, with imprimatur by Archbishop John Whealon: and on turning to Isaiah 7: 14; It says here, "A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc."" The catholic church now admit that Isaiah never did say that a "VIRGIN" would conceive and bear a son, etc.
In translating the Hebrew words of the prophet Isaiah, that an "Almah" an "unmarried female" is with child and will bear a son," into Greek, which unlike the Hebrew language, does not have a specific term for "virgin," the authors of the Septuagint and Matthew correctly used the Greek word "Parthenos," which carries a basic meaning of "girl," or unmarried youth, and denotes "virgin" only by implication."
When Mary, the young "PARTHENOS=UNMARRIED FEMALE" said that she had never known a man, The implication was, that she was still a virgin at that particular time, until 3 to 4 months later when she became pregnant to her half Brother, Joseph the son Alexander Helios/Heli.
A more accurate rendering of the Greek "parthenos" is a person who does not have a regular sexual partner, a widow with a family of children, would be a "parthenos"."
In reference to Hanna/Anna the mother of Mary, who nursed the baby Jesus before Mary performed the ceremony of purification, it is said that Anna was a prophetess who earnestly hoped for the coming of the Messiah, she was an old woman of 84 and had been a widow for seven years, never remarrying, but remaining in her parthenia="Unmarried and sexually chaste state, ect." She was a parthenos, but no way in the world does that mean that she was a virgin."
To translate something from the Hebrew to the Greek, or from any language to another, one must not lose the essence of the original, and the original was, that "A young woman was with child. "Therefore, as the greater majority of churches now admit, that the words of Isaiah, were, "A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc." Matthew 1: 23; should now read, "Now all this happened to make come true "WHAT THE LORD HAD SAID THROUGH ISAIAH," "A young woman who is pregnant will have a son, etc." Because they all now admit that those were the words of Isaiah 7: 14."
The Septuagint was a translation of the Hebrew Old Testament into Greek, by Hebrews in Alexandria, LONG before the days of Jesus and they like Matthew, were forced to use the Greek term, "Parthenos" in translating the Hebrew "Almah" Because there was no other word in that Language that they could use for maiden, or young girl, etc."
"Parthenos," was often used in reference to non-virgins who had never been married. Homer uses it in reference to unmarried girls who were no longer virgins, and Homer was the standard textbook for learning Greek all throughout antiquity, so any writer of Greek, including Matthew, who translated Isaiah"s words, that (An unmarried woman would be with child etc) while being well aware of this words versatile and indefinite meaning; was in no way implying that Mary was a virgin."
For the Hebrew has a specific term for "virgin," "Bethulah" which word is used in every instance in the Old Testament where a woman who has never had sexual intercourse with a man is referred to, which word, 'BETHULAH' Isaiah would have used, if it was the Lords intention to convey the message that a bethulah/virgin would bear a child, which is obviously not the case with the unmarried woman/Almah, who is mentioned in Isaiah 7:14."
In Pergamos, as one of the final stages in the quest for enlightenment, the initiated adept would participate in sex with the Temple Virgin/Parthenos."
"Parthenos" did not mean possessing an intact hymen. A parthenos was simply an unmarried woman, a woman who claimed ownership of herself."