SaulToPaul 2
Well-known member
And I would say in one way or another every prophecy points to or is a type of Jesus.
How about Zechariah 5, "this is wickedness"?
And I would say in one way or another every prophecy points to or is a type of Jesus.
How about Zechariah 5, "this is wickedness"?
The wickedness was judged and the result wickedness was dealt with by God.
Zechariah 5 is talking about something else.
Did Christ fulfill Zechariah 5?
Lol - Ol dodge is an Acts 2 Dispy
Did Jesus pay for your and mine wickedness ? I believe He did.
lol, not even close Danoh.
:thumb:
lol, not even close Danoh.
To STP:
the D'ist system is what is made up.
The use of the NT that I'm referring to is done without pretense or 'figuring out.' Yet when it is quoted to you, you say it is 'made up.' I mean when the plain meaning is quoted. That is your problem and why I have given up direct communication. The D'ist system always protects itself first and then sees what is left over in the Bible.
'What God promised our fathers...' Acts 13
'you were...foreigners to the covenants of the promise...' Eph 2
'you now share in together in the promise in Christ Jesus.' Eph 3
'that the blessing given to Abraham might come to the Gentiles through Christ, that we might receive the promise of the Spirit.' Gal 3
'you are...heirs according to the promise.' Gal 4
What was promised Israel often gets referred to as singular, reduced down to one thing. That one thing is Christ and His Spirit, which are one. That also automatically means the mission of Christ. To say anything about Christ, on this side of the Gospel event, is to automatically have a mission, because God was in Christ remitting the debt of sins of humanity.
The important thing is that the whole notion of promise to Israel must be seen this was--as it is in Acts. It starts in 1:8, where trying to figure out a civic, theocratic kingdom for Israel is exploded and replaced with the power of the Spirit (as I said, Christ and his Spirit are one).
It continues in 13 where Israel is admonished to preach Christ and is said to be the light of the world in doing so, in Christ. The quote from Isaiah is there because Paul the Christian always taught that there was a new destiny for Israel expressed as early as the exile warnings. The government of this new form of kingdom would be on the shoulders of the Messiah.
It continues in Rom 10, 11 where he prods Israel to be missionaries. He says so. He's trying provoke them. Because in the gifts of Messiah to mankind, says Ps 68, the Lord 'gave the word and there was a multitude of preachers.' That is what Rom 9-11 is about, not a prediction of some separate Davidic theocracy all over again.
It is also found in an afterword in Acts 26 where Paul reflects that 'we did not teach anything beyond what we were permitted from the prophets: that Christ would suffer and the nations would hear his Gospel.'
You will NEVER hear the NT say 'oh, don't forget, there is also a separate land promise thingie out there just for the nation of Israel, two.'
Christ and his mission are the fulfillment of the promise.
The correct transliteration of the noun epangelia would be pre-evangelism and not promise. Meaning an evangelism previously prepared or evangelised.
They took the correct term evangel and replaced it with gospel and took the pre-evangelism and replaced it with promise. The translators were traitors.
If a word does not exist in the target language then it should be transliterated instead of making up words or taking a word for interpretation purposes.
It has more to do with matching the Hebrew from Genesis than with its similarity to 'euangelion'. It's rooted in Septuagint Greek.
The term gospel only appears in the NT and the word promise in relation to pre-evangel the same. So what are you saying?
The gospel is in Isaiah a few times.
'epangelia' and 'euangelia' are not roots of each other. They are related in terms of before and after, or expectation and fulfillment.
I'm referring to what appears to be a formal Promise (thus the capital P) in Gal 3:17, where the implication of Paul there is that Judaism (that he was raised in ) replaced the Promise with the Law, thus confining it to Israel and to obedience. Since there is no capitalization in the originals (everything is capital), the reader has to go by context. The third term that would be capitalized in Gal 3 would be Gospel, if you were going to capitalize the other two.