ECT WHY GLOSSA /TONGUES ARE NOT FOR TODAY !!

jsjohnnt

New member
Where does it say it was for the Jews?

Why, in private, did Paul speak in tongues?
Good points. On the Day of Pentecost, the city was full of Jews and Gentile converts. Where does it say that the events of the day was sign "for the Jews." God used a "tongues" events, on Pentecost, to preach the good news to men and women in their own language.

To consistently ignore the absolute fact that Paul had a prayer language and used it often, perhaps at home on private times with his God, does not win the argument.

Understand that I do not speak in tongues and attend a Baptist church. But I know how to read, and, accept the fact that I do not understand all that Paul is talking about. I have been in plenty of "Pentecostal services" where tongues were spoken and misused. but, the problems facing the Charismatic church are strikingly similar to those of Corinth.

I can attend a Charismatic service of worship, and leave filled with the spirit of praise and adoration. To pretend that "Pentecostals" do not have a legitimate theology as to gifts of the spirit, is to grant your theology more prominence than it deserves. As my signature states, "All theologies are the inventions of men." That is true, because all theologies are the result of our understanding, our interpretation, of the biblical message.

My apologies to CR for thinking I really needed to add to his points.
 

jsjohnnt

New member
To God's Truth: You wrote: "
I gave you scripture that clearly says it is for the JEWS, and for UN-believers. I Corinthians 14:22 Tongues, then, are a sign, not for believers but for unbelievers."


You really need to take your foot out of your mouth, and admit that "unbelievers" is not a term limited to the Jews. In fact, in Corinth, it is highly unlikely that "unbelievers" references Jews nearly as much as it does pagans, Romans, idolaters. "The Jew" was probably a minor consideration in the term, "unbeliever," in Corinth.

So, "nice try but no cigar." Try again with your scripture proving that tongues were a sign for the Jews. It is critical to your thinking, as stated in this thread. I mean, in your mind, "when the Jews are gone, the need for tongues is gone." If I misunderstand, correct me, keeping in mind the fact, that, the last time I looked, there are still Jews running around who are unbelievers.
 

jsjohnnt

New member
God's Truth wrote: "You are the one who is silly for thinking a one time event nullifies the truth.

Speaking in tongues was a sign to the Jews. It also let the Jews know that Gentiles were accepted into salvation. God gave signs and miracles to testify to the gospel message. This was during the laying of the foundation. How do you ever get that it should have then been a one time sign for some Jews and then stopped? There were other Jews to see and hear.
"

My response: Let's start at the top. First, you seem to believe that tongues was for the Jew only? Secondly, tongues, in the Acts of the Apostles, witnessed the reception of the Indwelling but, outside that record (Acts), the fruit of the Spirit witnesses the presence of the Spirit as does vitually everything we do, as a Christian (Philip 2:12-13).

As to the "one time event." My answer is this: find me another example of the Apostles using "tongues" to preach in the languages of those gathered to listen. I can't find such an example, and so I say, "Pentecost was a one time event." I don't want your commentary, I want a scripture. Or an admission that you just might have your foot in your mouth, still .. . . . . . and Mama always told us not to talk when our mouths are full.
 

whitestone

Well-known member
In 1corinthians 14:2 KJV it is stated that the one speaking in tongues "speaking mysteries",,,although as we know Christ,Paul,John,angels and others delivered many types of mysteries. Some mysteries have been revealed,some have not. The mercy seat of which we cannot speak particularly,the things sealed until the end in Danial,the things the seven thunders uttered,the name to calculate and many more are kept a mystery until their appropriate time and then their mysteries will be revealed. As the manner of their Revelation I think the thing that was is the thing that will be,that is as well as there is confusion in the last dispensations end and beginning,also confusion in the end of the dispensation of grace and the dispensation of the millennial.
 

God's Truth

New member
To God's Truth: You wrote: "
I gave you scripture that clearly says it is for the JEWS, and for UN-believers. I Corinthians 14:22 Tongues, then, are a sign, not for believers but for unbelievers."


You really need to take your foot out of your mouth, and admit that "unbelievers" is not a term limited to the Jews.
My foot is not in my mouth.

You and your denomination uses 'tongues' for BELIEVERS. Paul rebukes you with the truth.
In fact, in Corinth, it is highly unlikely that "unbelievers" references Jews nearly as much as it does pagans, Romans, idolaters. "The Jew" was probably a minor consideration in the term, "unbeliever," in Corinth.

Why won't you believe the scriptures that God would give the sign to the Jews? The Jews from MANY different languages heard them SPEAKING IN THEIR LANGUAGE.

So, "nice try but no cigar." Try again with your scripture proving that tongues were a sign for the Jews. It is critical to your thinking, as stated in this thread. I mean, in your mind, "when the Jews are gone, the need for tongues is gone." If I misunderstand, correct me, keeping in mind the fact, that, the last time I looked, there are still Jews running around who are unbelievers.

The scriptures says the sign was for the Jews...Paul confirms this in 1 Corinthians 14:21. God testified to the gospel by signs and miracles, during the laying of the foundation. The sign was given and the foundation has been laid.

You cannot add anything to the written Word of God...new knowledge has ceased, as has tongues.
 

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
In Acts, tongues are always real, human languages

Act 19:2 He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.
Act 19:3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.
Act 19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
Act 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
Act 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
 

God's Truth

New member
Act 19:2 He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.
Act 19:3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.
Act 19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
Act 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
Act 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

As Puppet said, it was always about languages.
 

God's Truth

New member
God's Truth wrote: "You are the one who is silly for thinking a one time event nullifies the truth.

Speaking in tongues was a sign to the Jews. It also let the Jews know that Gentiles were accepted into salvation. God gave signs and miracles to testify to the gospel message. This was during the laying of the foundation. How do you ever get that it should have then been a one time sign for some Jews and then stopped? There were other Jews to see and hear.
"

My response: Let's start at the top. First, you seem to believe that tongues was for the Jew only?

That is what scripture says.

Secondly, tongues, in the Acts of the Apostles, witnessed the reception of the Indwelling but, outside that record (Acts), the fruit of the Spirit witnesses the presence of the Spirit as does vitually everything we do, as a Christian (Philip 2:12-13).

As to the "one time event." My answer is this: find me another example of the Apostles using "tongues" to preach in the languages of those gathered to listen. I can't find such an example, and so I say, "Pentecost was a one time event." I don't want your commentary, I want a scripture. Or an admission that you just might have your foot in your mouth, still .. . . . . . and Mama always told us not to talk when our mouths are full.

You are speaking nonsense. I only have to give you one scripture. One scripture is enough to rebuke you with the truth.
 

God's Truth

New member
In 1corinthians 14:2 KJV it is stated that the one speaking in tongues "speaking mysteries",,,although as we know Christ,Paul,John,angels and others delivered many types of mysteries. Some mysteries have been revealed,some have not. The mercy seat of which we cannot speak particularly,the things sealed until the end in Danial,the things the seven thunders uttered,the name to calculate and many more are kept a mystery until their appropriate time and then their mysteries will be revealed. As the manner of their Revelation I think the thing that was is the thing that will be,that is as well as there is confusion in the last dispensations end and beginning,also confusion in the end of the dispensation of grace and the dispensation of the millennial.

Tell me, if anyone comes to you preaching ANYTHING...are you going to check on what the SCRIPTURES say?
 

Puppet

BANNED
Banned
Act 19:2 He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.
Act 19:3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.
Act 19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
Act 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
Act 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.



The unique outpouring of the Holy Spirit from heaven by Christ was an aspect of Christ’s glorification and, like the resurrection and ascension, is never to be repeated.
 

God's Truth

New member
The New Testament epistles teach that believing in Christ, becoming a part of His body, the Church, and receiving Spirit-baptism all occur at the same time.

You do not receive the Holy Spirit until Jesus accepts you. Jesus tells us whom he accepts.
 

Puppet

BANNED
Banned
You do not receive the Holy Spirit until Jesus accepts you. Jesus tells us whom he accepts.

Jesus accepts only those drawn by God. The Arminian does indeed stress man's responsibility to the exclusion of the sovereignty of God, and this is a fruitful cause of more than one error
 

God's Truth

New member
Jesus accepts only those drawn by God. The Arminian does indeed stress man's responsibility to the exclusion of the sovereignty of God, and this is a fruitful cause of more than one error

Jesus tells us exactly whom he chooses to save and why.

We are expected to become those Jesus saves.
 

jsjohnnt

New member
That is what scripture says.



You are speaking nonsense. I only have to give you one scripture. One scripture is enough to rebuke you with the truth.
Your are too irrational for me. In the future, I will just ignore you silliness as to a sustainable discussion. I just hope you are not a teacher within the church.

I argued that Acts 2 was a ONE TIME event, and asked that you give me a second example. And you, my confused friend, told me that that a second example was not necessary, implying that one example is good for two, apparently/ Geeeeesh.
 
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