ECT Who was the apostle to the Jews,

I

Interplanner

Well-known member
Truster said:
The main problem here as with many threads on TOL is the complete lack of understanding as to the word ''gospel'' and how it in no way conveys what the original word conveys. The original word as it was promised, delivered and understood had no need for interpretation.

A quick look at other European Bibles will give you a starting point in doing an exegeses and study into this. If it pleases the Eternal you will come out of the study a different person to the one who entered into it.

Evanđelje....... Croatian Bible

Evangelium...... Czech Bible

Evangelium....... Danish Bible

Evangelie....... Dutch Bible

Evangelium...... Luther German Bible

In English the original word was replaced and in replacing it the true meaning was suppressed and lost. The original word should have been transliterated, because there was no truly comparative word in any other language.
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Why would you bother with a variety of European languages when the question is what the ancient Greek meant?
 
T

Truster

New member
Interplanner said:
Why would you bother with a variety of European languages when the question is what the ancient Greek meant?
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Because the european languages transliterated instead of just sticking in a word like gospel. When I do a word study I cross check a dozen or so other language translations. It often throws up something that has been overlooked.
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
Truster said:
Because the european languages transliterated instead of just sticking in a word like gospel. When I do a word study I cross check a dozen or so other language translations. It often throws up something that has been overlooked.
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But the word goes back to the LXX and why it was chosen to translate certain Hebrew expressions especially in Isaiah. Your looking several cultures, centuries and 1 continent away. You should be looking into the background of Is 61 (Lk 4) where by parallelism (a Hebrew method) it is the same as the year/time of the Lord's favor.
 
T

Truster

New member
Interplanner said:
But the word goes back to the LXX and why it was chosen to translate certain Hebrew expressions especially in Isaiah. Your looking several cultures, centuries and 1 continent away. You should be looking into the background of Is 61 (Lk 4) where by parallelism (a Hebrew method) it is the same as the year/time of the Lord's favor.
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I have
 
Nick M

Nick M

Reconciled by the Cross
LIFETIME MEMBER
Hall of Fame
Lazy afternoon said:
Did the Jews saved under Peters gospel , have to abandon their gospel and change to Pauls gospel?
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Why don't you just go with what the Bible says? The Bible guides you. Paul ministered to a church mixed of circumcision and uncircumcision.

1 Corinthians 7

18 Was anyone called while circumcised? Let him not become uncircumcised. Was anyone called while uncircumcised? Let him not be circumcised. 19 Circumcision is nothing and uncircumcision is nothing, but keeping the commandments of God is what matters. 20 Let each one remain in the same calling in which he was called.

and why was Paul preaching His gospel to Jews if he was the Apostle to the Gentiles.
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His good news is of uncircumcision, not just to gentiles. Later was gentiles only because Israel was cast away. Why don't you just go with what the Bible says?

MAD says there are two gospels and if any should preach any other gospel to Pauls then they are accursed.
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If you try to put gentiles under circumcision, you are accursed. Get it right.

Galatians 1

8 But even if we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel to you than what we have preached to you, let him be accursed. 9 As we have said before, so now I say again, if anyone preaches any other gospel to you than what you have received, let him be accursed.
 
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