Any theology that claims that God authored logic would be rationally incoherent, as it would 'beg the question'.
Any theology that considers that 'logic' and 'time' are co-eternal with God certainly begs the question. You must simply assert that claim without any means to substantiate it.
Those of us who believe that both time and logic are cosmic forces have plenty of biblical substantiation to prove that God created the cosmos, more on that later.
Clete said:
If God is super-logical then there is no way to know what does or does not apply to God. There can be no Theology Proper at all if that which is irrational can apply to God.
This is so because Theology is the logic of God, that's what the word THEOLOGY means; the Logos (logic) of the Theos (God). Thus, if God is super logic, He is super theological as well thus no knowledge of God would be possible.
Three responses here.
First, God is not irrational but His ways are often incapable of being understood by human beings that have limited capacity to understand the rationality of God. This is one of the main problems with open theology. If there is an aspect of God's will, nature, plan or purpose that cannot be fully understood and fully explained by man, then open theism rejects that aspect of God. This illustrates the fundamental irrationality of open theism because it is illogical and irrational to conclude that an all knowing, all powerful, eternal God could be able to be fully comprehended by a temporal being who has limited capability and limited understanding.
In essence, the god of open theism is only as big as the level of understanding of the open theist.
Second, your shallow argument from the etymology of "theology" (in addition to being wrong) commits the exegetical fallacy (which you will undoubtedly need to look up).
Furthermore, 'theology' is not, in fact, a conjunction of θεος and Λογος, it is conjunction of θεος and Λογια (which is a related word but has a slightly distinct meaning). If you look it up in Liddell, Scott and Jones you will find that it means "oracle" or "discourse." And, in fact, the first historical usage we have of the word occurs in Plato's work referring to discourses about God (or gods).
Not only are you mistaken as to the etymology of the term, your etymological argument doesn't prove what you attempt to prove. God is not bound by our limited understanding of logic and as such what you understand 'theologically' does not bind the nature of God.
Finally, to assume that a God that is bigger than our ability to logically explain means that He cannot be understood in part is a non sequitur (another logic term, you'll probably want to Google that one as well). It does not follow that because the fullness of God supersedes our understanding there is nothing about God we can know. God can, and has, condescended to explain truths about Himself that we are capable of understanding precisely because He has revealed them to us.
To illustrate, just because most 8 year old children can't understand advanced calculus does not mean that they can't understand anything about math at all nor does it mean that because the 8 year old can't fathom some mathematical theorems does not mean those theorems are not true.
Clete said:
Further, your "what is conceivable by you" comment, implies something else that you probably didn't intend. That being the idea that logic is subjective and thus all knowledge is likewise subjective.
No, not at all. What it implies is that that your cognitive limitations don't limit God.
Clete said:
This is how I know that you looked up the definition of "necessary" and found all the commentary concerning necessary vs. sufficient conditions, which, by the way, is only one use of the term 'necessary'. The term applies to nearly any conclusion to a rationally valid argument. If some conclusion or axiom is necessary, it means that is HAS TO BE and cannot be otherwise given a particular context.
So, for example, if A=B and B=C then A=C. The "A=C" part is NECESSARY. It could be stated this way, If A equals B and B equals C then A necessarily equals C.
You are right, I looked it up, when I was studying truth function logic in my freshman year at university.
Is this really the best use of your time Clete? I am sure they may be 2 or 3 people who are more interested in what constitutes a necessarily condition in truth function logic than they are the actual topic at hand, but, despite the fact that I minored in logic, I'm not one of them.
Nevertheless, we are all very impressed at your understanding of logic. I am sure that you have succeeded in impressing someone.
Clete said:
And the point of all this is that it DOES NOT MATTER what I can or cannot conceive of! The laws of reason ARE NOT subject to my perceptions, feelings or personal opinions! This fact is what makes logic useful! Its the reason why we can know anything! ANYTHING AT ALL!
Finally, we agree. It doesn't matter what you can or cannot conceive of. Incidentally this is my point exactly. You may not understand how it is that God is both timeless and an Agent within time but if there is sufficient biblical evidence that shows both, then we are bound to conclude that both are true whether that accords with our puny little understandings of logic or not.
Clete said:
I never said or even suggested that I have to be able to understand it. What I do say is that nothing can be both true and irrational! Indeed, it is the very fact that something is irrational that proves it false. If the irrational might be true in spite of its irrationality, well then nothing at all could ever be declared false.
I'm not sure where you are going with this nor do I think it matters.
What is true is necessarily rational, but what you think is irrational is not necessarily untrue. You may well think that God being bigger than time is irrational but God doesn't care and your thinking so doesn't make it so.
Clete said:
Lucifer is the creator of all that exists, including Father God Himself!
Prove that statement false without employing or appealing to the laws of reason. I dare you to even try it! (You will not be able to.)
And don't tell that its obviously false and therefore no argument need be made because I feel EXACTLY the same way about the stupidity known as Divine Timelessness! You can't conceive of the notion of Lucifer being God's creator? Well, what the heck does that prove? Just because you can't conceive of it being true doesn't mean that it isn't! - Right?
I have absolutely no idea why you think this was pertinent or helpful.
Lets move on to something more to the point.
Notably, what you said here.
Clete said:
You see, just because you say something is my personal opinion doesn't mean that it is. Concepts are what they are. Words mean what they mean. It isn't my opinion that time is a convention of language used to convey information concerning the duration and/or sequence of events, that's just what time is.
First, you are correct that my claiming that something is just your opinion doesn't make it just your opinion. Second, just because you say that it isn't just your opinion doesn't make it uncontroverted fact.
Third, I don't think your definition of time is adequate enough to prove your point or to explain many of the observable scientific phenomenon of time dilation nor does it conclusively tell us how God experiences time. It certainly doesn't prove that God is obligated to experience time just as we do, nor does it effectively disprove that God is able to experience time differently nor does it disprove that God is free not to experience time at all.
Have you ever paused to consider the possibility God experiences existence in a completely different way than we do? Perhaps God is free to experience cosmic time (time as we experience it as created beings) but is also free from the bounds of that experience.
If you think that God is entirely within cosmic time, then all sorts of thorny questions arise that the OV folks avoid answering such as, how fast does God change? How fast does He experience change? Could God experience change faster, or slower than we do? Can God experience time variably? Does gravity affect the way God experiences time like it does to created objects? Does acceleration experience the way God experiences time like it does to us. If Einstein is right, and time is relative then to what does God experience time relative to? The answer for us is clear, we experience time relative to the cosmos around us, but God is independent of His creation. This really leads to my second set of questions.
Second, how does your definition of time as experienced by God account for the fact that
every measure of time or conception of time we know of is dependent upon physicality to both measure and conceive of time?
You do realize how we measure time don't you? 24 hours is the time it takes for the earth to make a full rotation, a year measures a full rotation around the sun. Hours, seconds, months, days are but fractional measures of these cosmic events. Of course, we can conceive of things in sequence but even that is dependent upon the physical universe. Event A happens after event B but both event A and B happen in space and the results are measured physically. Even your own thoughts are physical events in time as electrical pulses fire in sequence in your grey matter.
Now consider how God is exempt from these conditions. God doesn't need the sun or the earth nor does He need space or brain matter. We can't conceive of how God thinks because we can't conceive of what it would mean to think without a physical brain to think with.
So your objection to the notion that God thinks in an 'eternal now' is based upon your own experience of that impossibility. Yes, it is impossible for you, but that's because you are a physical being that is subject to physical limitations.
Just how logical is it to conclude that a non-physical entity (God) is entirely subject to physical limitations and measurements?
Clete said:
This is what is referred to as "arguing from definition". You run across it whenever you here someone add the phrase "by definition" to the end of some comment they've made. Its a way of making a logical argument stand apart from a mere personal opinion.
That is, insofar as one's "definition" is conclusive and not a matter of mere personal opinion.
If you can demonstrate to me conclusively that you have an entirely accurate and exhaustive definition of 'time' then you can proceed to "argue from definition." Otherwise the inherent flaws in your definition will bleed through into your argumentation.
Clete said:
You treat logic as though it were synonymous with and equal to personal opinion and then turn right around and give me, and all Open Theists collectively, a hard time for supposedly making arguments based on our personal opinions when in fact its the other way around!
No, I treat logic (especially the logic that God uses and thinks with) as far higher and better than the limited understanding of the open theist and I give you open theists a hard time (as if you Open Theists don't give us Calvinists hard times??) because you refuse to take seriously the portions of scripture that clearly refute your position or you employ circular reasoning to contort them so that they fit into your theological paradigm.
Clete said:
It is we Open Theists who are rejecting mere personal opinions in exchange for the cold hard facts of sound reason and the plain reading of Scripture!
Really?
Then explain to us me why you don't accept the plain reading of Psalm 139:16, John 6:64, Acts 4:27-28 and others. In fact, lets get to your attempt to explain away Psalm 139 now.
Clete said:
Psalms 139 is talking about the process of development of a baby in the womb. It doesn't say a word about God know all of David's days for his whole life nor does it speak of God knowing David before he existed, but merely before he was born - there's a difference.
That's a lie and one of the worst kind. It attempts to contort the scriptures in order to preserve your theology.
Here is what the scriptures actually say.
God's Holy Word said:
"And in Your book they all were written, The days fashioned for me, When as yet there were none of them." (Psa 139:16 NKJ)
You are either too blinded by your theology or too invested in it to admit that you have directly contradicted the scriptures.
You claim that this psalm “doesn't say a word about God know(ing) all of David's days..”
The scripture says that all of David's days were written in God's book when as yet there were one of them?
Now, lets employ some of that logic and rationality you went on and on about. How did all of David's days get written in God's book before there were yet one of them? Who do you think put them in the book if not God? And how do you explain that God put them there if He didn't know them? The only logical inference from this verse is that God knew exactly what you claim He didn't know. God knew all of David's days.
Clete said:
God can make predictions and bring His plans to pass without having to take a peak into the future. Even I can do that and so can you!
So you think that God's book in Psalm 139 is titled “God's little book of predictions: Divine guesses for people's lives?”
Now on to other not so important matters.
Clete said:
Your counter example fails because being a duck does not presuppose being in a pond! There are thousands of ducks that have never seen a pond and are yet ducks! That's because being in a pond is not part of what it means to be a duck.
Neither is being in time part of what it means to be God.
Clete said:
The concept of existence, however, DOES presuppose duration. That is to say that without the concept of duration, existence has no meaning. A thing that exists without duration, does not exist at all - BY DEFINITION!
And as I stated a moment ago, time is simply duration and/or sequence. If you are talking about duration you are using the concept of time to do it. It is not possible to do otherwise.
Your first problem is that you make a claim as if we are all just obligated to believe it because you do. I dispute that time is “simply duration and or/sequence.” I think that is an overly simplistic definition that does not account for observable phenomenology regarding time (like gravitational time dilation) or the relativity of time. Time is far more bound up the physical universe than you have accounted for. Second, I dispute that existence presupposes sequence (because sequence is measured by physical events). Nice circular argumentation though.
Then you go off on some tirade...
Clete said:
There are two sentences quoted above. One of them was a known lie when you wrote it.
You either have not done hardly any study of either Augustine or Plato, or you know for a fact that it is precisely both of them that are almost exclusively responsible for ANYONE'S belief in a timeless god, Christian or otherwise.
After which you treat us all to a lecture about how you are not the average bear and we should all be very mindful of the fact that you are a cut above the typical mindless idiot. Congratulations, we are all very impressed with your intellectual prowess. I am sure someone will care, unfortunately most of your self adulation is lost on me.
I will also say that I am not at all concerned with what you think about my knowledge of either Augustine or Plato. You can carry on all you like about this though, some of your sycophants might be entertained.
I've managed to pick a final thought worth responding to out of the rest of your tirade about how this isn't a water cooler discussion and other wastes of precious time.
Clete said:
God did not author the laws of logic any more than God authored love or righteousness. God is Love, God is Righteousness, God is Logic. All of which are equivalent statements. A life lived rationally is a life lived righteously, a life lived righteously is a life of love! Its all the same thing! Love is righteous, righteousness is logical, logic is love! John 1 tells us outright that God the Son is Logic and that Logic became flesh and dwelt among us. Did God create Himself? No! Love, righteousness, justice, logic and the like are not created things but are rather derive their definition from the person of the Creator Himself.
First, you define λογος in terms that the bible doesn't use. No translation that I know of translates λογος as logic. You would do much better to define it the way most bible translations do which is to define λογος as Word which is a concept that has a lot more to do with truths of the OT scriptures than it does with the development of Hellenistic rationalism.
The concept of Word, as developed by the Hebrew scriptures is really the point in John 1:1. The scriptural basis for this Greek word points to Jesus as Creator (since God created by the Word), Jesus as Truth and Jesus as God's Wisdom. Furthermore, during this time in Palestine, the rabbis used the word memra (or Word) as a periphrasis for God. There are other considerations developed by Philo as well but your point that God must accord with our understanding of what is logical is totally foreign to John's point in John 1:1.
Second, the laws of logic are cosmic laws just as the measure of time is a cosmic measurement. Of course they were authored by God. Granted, some of the laws of the universe are reflections of the eternal nature of God but they come into the cosmos through creation. For example, (and back to the topic of discussion) 'time' is a cosmic construct whereby we see and measure the rate of change and motion of matter and energy. Furthermore we can see that this rate of change is variable and relative, it is affected by other physical forces like gravity and acceleration. That's why time dilation is measurable, because time is influenced by other cosmic forces (like inertia and gravity). Assuming that God is bound by time creates too many problems since that would situation God entirely within the realm of the cosmos that the bible claims He created.
But an even more important exception to your theology is the abundance of biblical evidence that God is able to transcend the bounds of time. This is evident by God's knowing the future. In fact, God gives a challenge to the mute and dumb idols through Isaiah asking the to do what only He can do.
Tell us what is to come hereafter, that we may know that you are gods; do good, or do harm, that we may be dismayed and terrified. Behold, you are nothing, and your work is less than nothing; an abomination is he who chooses you. I stirred up one from the north, and he has come, from the rising of the sun, and he shall call upon my name; he shall trample on rulers as on mortar, as the potter treads clay. Who declared it from the beginning, that we might know, and beforehand, that we might say, "He is right"? There was none who declared it, none who proclaimed, none who heard your words. (Isaiah 41:23-26 ESV)
Unfortunately, OV ascribes to the Lord Our God the same ignorance that the idols of Isaiah 41 shared.