Interplanner
Well-known member
As I said, some things are only about that generation . But the Gentiles get a better one considering the previous was non existent!
Yet he constantly criticizes it
grew up in it.
Now we have this issue: you keep talking about the restoration of Israel in Judea, yet now it is said that no D'ist believes in the restoration of Israel...
ALL ENGLISH TRANSLATIONS ARE MISQUOTES!!!
Thanks for continuing to show your insanity.As I said, some things are only about that generation . But the Gentiles get a better one considering the previous was non existent!
Thanks for continuing to show your insanity.
His ability to make things up is infinite.
Since the gentiles NEVER had a priesthood, how can they have a "better" one?
Since the gentiles NEVER had a covenant, how can they have a "better" one?
Etc. etc. etc.
There is MORE than one TYPE of salvation in the Bible, "grammar scholar".
The salvation referred to in Hebrews 9:28 is a YET future salvation.
Paul tells us that we are SAVED now (Rom 5:11).
Another example of "saved" is in Luke 1:71ff
Hi and that is right on , as the verb SHALL HE APPEAR / OPTANOMAI is in the FUTURE TENSE and in the PASSIVE VOICE and in the INDICATIVE MOOD of a FACT !!
dan p
Thanks for continuing to show your insanity.
I think that the thing hidden in God in Eph 3:9 and hidden in the prophetic writings but now made known (Rom 16:25) are the same thing: that the OT was about Christ and the Gospel all along, and those are allowed to define things in the new era of Christ.
IP, question for you, bit of a change in direction:But they/we were! We were without hope and cut off from the covenants of the promise, Eph 2:12. But now we are brought near through the blood of Christ (just remember, as Tam says, that the blood and body of Christ are 100,000 feet of electrically charged concrete apart from each other, to keep things clear).
It must therefore be that Gen 3, 12, 15 always was looking to include the nations in the Gospel, and that the land was only a temporary positioning of the people of Israel in preparation for that.
IP, question for you, bit of a change in direction:
How many gospels are there in the Bible?
Galatians 2:7-9 says there are two:As a type of writing, there are 4.
As a doctrine, in which the event of Christ's death and resurrection is a great announcement, there is just one.
I think that the thing hidden in God in Eph 3:9 and hidden in the prophetic writings but now made known (Rom 16:25) are the same thing: that the OT was about Christ and the Gospel all along, and those are allowed to define things in the new era of Christ.
Galatians 2:7-9 says there are two:
But on the contrary, when they saw that the gospel for the uncircumcised had been committed to me, as the gospel for the circumcised was to Peter(for He who worked effectively in Peter for the apostleship to the circumcised also worked effectively in me toward the Gentiles),and when James, Cephas, and John, who seemed to be pillars, perceived the grace that had been given to me, they gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, that we should go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised. - Galatians 2:7-9 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Galatians2:7-9&version=NKJV
No that is a misunderstanding of the grammar. This has been debunked over the past 2 years here, just go find one of the many discussions. "of the circ" and "of the uncirc" are not direct objects in the sentences; they are indirect. In fact, the singular Gospel is single because of how the verb is constructed. If the two Gospel people were right, it would be translated: 'the tasks of preaching the Gospels...'
This kind of grammar mistake is typical of the amateur and ignorant basis put together by D'ism to try to preserve 'two peoples, two programs.'
The next line is the best clue: there are not two Gods at work in the two groups.