ECT What gospel was Paul saved under?

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DAN P

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Grosnick does not realize how graceful we are toward him, but the world will not be so kind to him when he receives his treatment back to him in good measure.

Mar 4:22 For there is nothing hid, which shall not be manifested; neither was any thing kept secret, but that it should come abroad.
Mar 4:23 If any man have ears to hear, let him hear.
Mar 4:24 And he said unto them, Take heed what ye hear: with what measure ye mete, it shall be measured to you: and unto you that hear shall more be given.
Mar 4:25 For he that hath, to him shall be given: and he that hath not, from him shall be taken even that which he hath.

Psa 10:2 The wicked in his pride doth persecute the poor: let them be taken in the devices that they have imagined.
Psa 10:3 For the wicked boasteth of his heart's desire, and blesseth the covetous, whom the LORD abhorreth.
Psa 10:4 The wicked, through the pride of his countenance, will not seek after God: God is not in all his thoughts.
Psa 10:5 His ways are always grievous; thy judgments are far above out of his sight: as for all his enemies, he puffeth at them.
Psa 10:6 He hath said in his heart, I shall not be moved: for I shall never be in adversity.


LA


Hi and here is our objection , that your reply by CONTEXT speaks to israel ??

You should believe what the Holy Spirit wrote through Payl in Rom 2:16 and I know that the Greek GOSPEL always is your downfall and shows why all PENTECOSTALS are all CALLOW

So , explain how Paul was saved in Acts 9:6??!!

dan p
 

Lazy afternoon

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Hi and here is our objection , that your reply by CONTEXT speaks to israel ??

You should believe what the Holy Spirit wrote through Payl in Rom 2:16 and I know that the Greek GOSPEL always is your downfall and shows why all PENTECOSTALS are all CALLOW

So , explain how Paul was saved in Acts 9:6??!!

Paul was not saved in Acts 9:6.

Salvation has many steps.

What step are you on?

Have you seen the Lord?

If you follow Paul then why have you not seen the Lord as he did?

Why have you not washed away your sins as Paul did?

Act 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

LA
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Paul was not saved in Acts 9:6.

Salvation has many steps.

What step are you on?

Have you seen the Lord?

If you follow Paul then why have you not seen the Lord as he did?

Why have you not washed away your sins as Paul did?

Act 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

LA


Hi and if you would read the CONTEXT that his , Paul's baptism was not with water as recorded in Acts 9:17 !!

So how many steps are there in Salvation ?

So you still do not kno how Paul was saved by Grace as recorded in Gal 1:15 ??

Very SAD and even if I explained it you will never believe !!

dan p
 
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Bright Raven

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Paul was not saved in Acts 9:6.

Salvation has many steps.

What step are you on?

Have you seen the Lord?

If you follow Paul then why have you not seen the Lord as he did?

Why have you not washed away your sins as Paul did?

Act 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

LA

God got his attention in Acts 9:6. He was saved in Acts 9:17 To make it easier for you, He was saved in Acts 9. Acts 22:16 is a reiteration of the passage in Acts 9.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
God got his attention in Acts 9:6. He was saved in Acts 9:17 To make it easier for you, He was saved in Acts 9. Acts 22:16 is a reiteration of the passage in Acts 9.



You are thinking that 'getting saved' is the experience, yet that is not what Paul thought it was. Justification was much bigger than his turnaround. It is cosmically important.
 

Lazy afternoon

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God got his attention in Acts 9:6. He was saved in Acts 9:17 To make it easier for you, He was saved in Acts 9. Acts 22:16 is a reiteration of the passage in Acts 9.



two things are mentioned here--

Act 9:17 And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house; and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost.
Act 9:18 And immediately there fell from his eyes as it had been scales: and he received sight forthwith, and arose, and was baptized.

Madists reject water baptism, yet Jesus said--

Mar 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
Mar 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.



LA
 

Danoh

New member
two things are mentioned here--

Act 9:17 And Ananias went his way, and entered into the house; and putting his hands on him said, Brother Saul, the Lord, even Jesus, that appeared unto thee in the way as thou camest, hath sent me, that thou mightest receive thy sight, and be filled with the Holy Ghost.
Act 9:18 And immediately there fell from his eyes as it had been scales: and he received sight forthwith, and arose, and was baptized.

Madists reject water baptism, yet Jesus said--

Mar 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
Mar 16:16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.



LA

In which case, the Apostle Paul (the first "MAD" in Scripture) was wrong.

For the Twelve were clearly sent to water baptize.

While Paul asserts...

1 - not only that he was not sent to water baptize;

2 - not only asserts he had water baptized very few;

3 - but relates he'd water baptized so few lest they should say they were baptized in the name of Paul; a concern the Lord did not seem to have an issue with when He sent the Twelve to water baptize (and they water baptized thousands, Acts 2).

In short, LA, you are ever clueless.

O, you will reason the above out all right.

But it will be contrary to the obvious.

That Paul was "not sent to baptize."

If anything, Paul should have been sent to water baptize. For he was out among the unclean Gentiles.

If anyone ended up contaminated as to "the filthiness of the flesh" 1 Peter 3:21, that Israel's "water of separation" Num. 19:9 (water baptism "after the manner of the purifying of the Jews" John 2:6) had been meant to address, it was Paul.

But for the fact that Paul was "not sent to baptize" because the Gentiles had been declared no longer "unclean" Acts 10.

Fact is, water baptism was "because of the Jews," and was THEN, as with all OUTWARD signs of acceptance before God, in transition.

So that by Ephesians 4, the Apostle of the Gentiles is asserting ONE baptism - that ONE baptism BY the Spirit INTO the Body of Christ that Paul DOES assert in 1 Corinthians 12.
 

Lazy afternoon

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LIFETIME MEMBER
In which case, the Apostle Paul (the first "MAD" in Scripture) was wrong.

For the Twelve were clearly sent to water baptize.

While Paul asserts...

1 - not only that he was not sent to water baptize;

2 - not only asserts he had water baptized very few;

3 - but relates he'd water baptized so few lest they should say they were baptized in the name of Paul; a concern the Lord did not seem to have an issue with when He sent the Twelve to water baptize (and they water baptized thousands, Acts 2).


Paul did baptize others in water as he also had been

Act 19:3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.
Act 19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
Act 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
Act 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

Others were still baptizing new believers when Paul was not.

Paul did not change the original gospel and that which was given under the new covenant to the first apostles--

Jud 1:3 Beloved, when I gave all diligence to write unto you of the common salvation, it was needful for me to write unto you, and exhort you that ye should earnestly contend for the faith which was once delivered unto the saints. Jud 1:4 For there are certain men crept in unawares, who were before of old ordained to this condemnation, ungodly men, turning the grace of our God into lasciviousness, and denying the only Lord God, and our Lord Jesus Christ.



Mat 28:18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Mat 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Mat 28:20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.


LA
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
In which case, the Apostle Paul (the first "MAD" in Scripture) was wrong.

For the Twelve were clearly sent to water baptize.

While Paul asserts...

1 - not only that he was not sent to water baptize;

2 - not only asserts he had water baptized very few;

3 - but relates he'd water baptized so few lest they should say they were baptized in the name of Paul; a concern the Lord did not seem to have an issue with when He sent the Twelve to water baptize (and they water baptized thousands, Acts 2).

In short, LA, you are ever clueless.

O, you will reason the above out all right.

But it will be contrary to the obvious.

That Paul was "not sent to baptize."

If anything, Paul should have been sent to water baptize. For he was out among the unclean Gentiles.

If anyone ended up contaminated as to "the filthiness of the flesh" 1 Peter 3:21, that Israel's "water of separation" Num. 19:9 (water baptism "after the manner of the purifying of the Jews" John 2:6) had been meant to address, it was Paul.

But for the fact that Paul was "not sent to baptize" because the Gentiles had been declared no longer "unclean" Acts 10.

Fact is, water baptism was "because of the Jews," and was THEN, as with all OUTWARD signs of acceptance before God, in transition.

So that by Ephesians 4, the Apostle of the Gentiles is asserting ONE baptism - that ONE baptism BY the Spirit INTO the Body of Christ that Paul DOES assert in 1 Corinthians 12.


I think this is mostly correct. I have always gotten the impression when comparing to baptism in Judaism that the ones done by Christians were supposed to make a quick transition, as quick as possible.
 

Interplanner

Well-known member
In which case, the Apostle Paul (the first "MAD" in Scripture) was wrong.

For the Twelve were clearly sent to water baptize.

While Paul asserts...

1 - not only that he was not sent to water baptize;

2 - not only asserts he had water baptized very few;

3 - but relates he'd water baptized so few lest they should say they were baptized in the name of Paul; a concern the Lord did not seem to have an issue with when He sent the Twelve to water baptize (and they water baptized thousands, Acts 2).

In short, LA, you are ever clueless.

O, you will reason the above out all right.

But it will be contrary to the obvious.

That Paul was "not sent to baptize."

If anything, Paul should have been sent to water baptize. For he was out among the unclean Gentiles.

If anyone ended up contaminated as to "the filthiness of the flesh" 1 Peter 3:21, that Israel's "water of separation" Num. 19:9 (water baptism "after the manner of the purifying of the Jews" John 2:6) had been meant to address, it was Paul.

But for the fact that Paul was "not sent to baptize" because the Gentiles had been declared no longer "unclean" Acts 10.

Fact is, water baptism was "because of the Jews," and was THEN, as with all OUTWARD signs of acceptance before God, in transition.

So that by Ephesians 4, the Apostle of the Gentiles is asserting ONE baptism - that ONE baptism BY the Spirit INTO the Body of Christ that Paul DOES assert in 1 Corinthians 12.


I think this is mostly correct. I have always gotten the impression when comparing to baptism in Judaism that the ones done by Christians were supposed to make a quick transition, as quick as possible. Possibly a 'miniature' or 'symbolic' ceremony to quickly discard.
 

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
I think this is mostly correct. I have always gotten the impression when comparing to baptism in Judaism that the ones done by Christians were supposed to make a quick transition, as quick as possible. Possibly a 'miniature' or 'symbolic' ceremony to quickly discard.

Act 19:2 He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.
Act 19:3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.
Act 19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
Act 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
Act 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.

The way of salvation has never changed.

Have you not obeyed it?

LA
 

Grosnick Marowbe

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Hall of Fame
In which case, the Apostle Paul (the first "MAD" in Scripture) was wrong.

For the Twelve were clearly sent to water baptize.

While Paul asserts...

1 - not only that he was not sent to water baptize;

2 - not only asserts he had water baptized very few;

3 - but relates he'd water baptized so few lest they should say they were baptized in the name of Paul; a concern the Lord did not seem to have an issue with when He sent the Twelve to water baptize (and they water baptized thousands, Acts 2).

In short, LA, you are ever clueless.

O, you will reason the above out all right.

But it will be contrary to the obvious.

That Paul was "not sent to baptize."

If anything, Paul should have been sent to water baptize. For he was out among the unclean Gentiles.

If anyone ended up contaminated as to "the filthiness of the flesh" 1 Peter 3:21, that Israel's "water of separation" Num. 19:9 (water baptism "after the manner of the purifying of the Jews" John 2:6) had been meant to address, it was Paul.

But for the fact that Paul was "not sent to baptize" because the Gentiles had been declared no longer "unclean" Acts 10.

Fact is, water baptism was "because of the Jews," and was THEN, as with all OUTWARD signs of acceptance before God, in transition.

So that by Ephesians 4, the Apostle of the Gentiles is asserting ONE baptism - that ONE baptism BY the Spirit INTO the Body of Christ that Paul DOES assert in 1 Corinthians 12.

Excellent post D.
 

Lazy afternoon

LIFETIME MEMBER
LIFETIME MEMBER
I think this is mostly correct. I have always gotten the impression when comparing to baptism in Judaism that the ones done by Christians were supposed to make a quick transition, as quick as possible. Possibly a 'miniature' or 'symbolic' ceremony to quickly discard.

No wonder you have no vision of the future Kingdom of God on earth.

You are not qualified for it.

Mat 28:18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
Mat 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Mat 28:20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

LA
 
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