Thine Inwardly
New member
the strange thing is that neither the church of England nor Rome had ever practiced baptism of the dead, in other words they did not baptize people that had died
the only connection I can possibly consider as to why the passage was translated in this way would be just the way they decided to translate the passage to codify and mold and acclimate and assimilate and hold to a specific standard of a strict style of Old or Middle English
i cant see any evidence of a reason for purposefully mistranslating or altering the manuscript message to conform to another doctrine or message
the only connection I can possibly consider as to why the passage was translated in this way would be just the way they decided to translate the passage to codify and mold and acclimate and assimilate and hold to a specific standard of a strict style of Old or Middle English
i cant see any evidence of a reason for purposefully mistranslating or altering the manuscript message to conform to another doctrine or message