Calvinist R. C. Sproul wrote that "In the acrostic TULIP the U refers to 'unconditional election.'..The term 'unconditional' simply means 'with no conditions attached, either foreseen otherwise.'...the grounds of our election are not something foreseen by God in us but rather the good pleasure of his sovereign will."
This contention that our election was unmerited by anything found in us implies absolutely that there was no dismerit found in those passed over for election. Election refers to HIS promise of salvation for sinners which means that anyone condemned cannot have once been an elect under HIS promise of salvation from sin but must have been passed over for election.
Published elsewhere:
Where is your verse that states the opposite of UE?
Every verse that states or implies our GOD is loving, righteous and just.
1 Timothy 5:21 I charge thee before GOD and the Lord Jesus Christ, and the ELECT angels. Since there are elect angels we can assume that the demonic angels were passed over for election or not considered for election. Angels do not presumably have any racial solidarity, ie, they all are holy or sinful by their own choice, not by anyone else's choice. So now we have to answer the question: were some elected before or after the fall of the Satanic rebellion?
IF they were elected / chosen before the fall then there is no stated reason for the non-election of the others.
Unmerited election then also means unmerited non-election, ie, for no lack of merit at all some were passed over for salvation and NOT chosen to be saved if they should ever sin.
What can we make of such a supposition? Can we say it is loving? Righteous? Just? The best we can say is HE is sovereign and if HE chose this way then who are you to argue, which is not a real answer at all. Why teach us HE is loving, righteous and just if it has no meaning in the biggest question in their existence:
Why were some passed over for election?!!
It is entirely possible that the decision for some to receive unmerited election and others to receive unmerited rejection for election with no indication that this decision was loving, righteous or just could have precipitated the Satanic war in heaven for NOT BEING loving, righteous or just so they committed themselves to war, putting their faith in the belief that YHWH was a false god and a liar, unworthy of being their GOD.
This is what 'unconditional' implies. It implies 'no reason', not just an 'unknown reason' because if there was a reason there would be merit by being on the side of the reason.
Unconditional election means they were just as acceptable for election as everyone but did not receive it....that is what 'without merit' also means! That does NOT sound like my GOD at all. IF they were passed over for a evil they did then there is merit to the election of those that were not passed over but who got the promise of election because they did not do that evil!!
BUT, if election was a response to the Satanic rebellion to reward those angels who did not rebel and to pass over those angels who did rebel and condemn them on the spot, then merit makes sense. Their rebellion to the command to put their faith in the Son and to love one another which they heard in the beginning
* is the reason they were passed over to be HIS Bride. The choice by some to accept HIM as their GOD and to put their faith in in HIS Son was the reason they were elected based upon the merit of this choice to obey the commandment.
*[
1 John 2:24 Let that therefore abide in you, which ye have heard from the beginning. If that which ye have heard from the beginning shall remain in you, ye shall continue in the Son, and in the Father.
1 John 3:8 ...for the devil sinneth from the beginning. Jamieson, Fausset and Brown's commentary(#27) says: “sinneth from the beginning - from the time that sin began; from the time that he became what he is, the devil.”
1 John 3:11 For this is the message that ye heard from the beginning, that we should love one another. I believe that John is referring to the loving purpose GOD has for each of us:
1 John 3:23 And this is His commandment, That we should believe on the name of His Son, Jesus Christ, and love one another, as He gave us commandment.]
Thus we probably have a precedent for election being based upon merit and proper free will decisions being the condition of being elected. And since unconditional election is false in the first people elected, I strongly suggest that it is wrongly used for sinful men who were also elected before the foundation of the world,
Ephesians 1:4, you know: at the beginning, the time of the Satanic fall.
Unconditional election means they non-elect were just as acceptable for election as everyone but did not receive it! 
