Go right ahead, False Prophet, keep desperately trying to make this about me.:cloud9:
Well one of us is certainly doing that about the other.
I know I hold no animosity towards you, and never have.
Go right ahead, False Prophet, keep desperately trying to make this about me.:cloud9:
I'll help out a little by showing the contrast in Greek and why they differ (by vs. through).Can I guess before I read the answer? I hadn't seen that before.
By faith is what man does, and through faith is what God does for us. He strengthens, He gives us understanding.
I'll help out a little by showing the contrast in Greek and why they differ (by vs. through).
Romans 3:30 since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcisedthrough faith is one.
Romans 3:30 επειπερ εις ο θεος ος δικαιωσει περιτομην εκ πιστεως και ακροβυστιαν δια της πιστεως
Both are prepositions.
The prepositions can indicate motion or method, depending on the construction.
For the construction of the above verse:
ek indicates motion out from an origin - the starting place which can be physical or mental depending on context.
dia (in this construction it is with the 'genitive') indicates motion through a place (a physical place, a situation, an idea).
If it had been with the 'accusative', it would indicate method - the means by which something occurs (on account of, because of).
By using these two together as contrasts, it indicates the starting points (origins), not the methods, that differ.
The method is the same for both - faith, but their origin (starting points) are different.
I'll help out a little by showing the contrast in Greek and why they differ (by vs. through).
Romans 3:30 since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcisedthrough faith is one.
Romans 3:30 επειπερ εις ο θεος ος δικαιωσει περιτομην εκ πιστεως και ακροβυστιαν δια της πιστεως
Both are prepositions.
The prepositions can indicate motion or method, depending on the construction.
For the construction of the above verse:
ek indicates motion out from an origin - the starting place which can be physical or mental depending on context.
dia (in this construction it is with the 'genitive') indicates motion through a place (a physical place, a situation, an idea).
If it had been with the 'accusative', it would indicate method - the means by which something occurs (on account of, because of).
By using these two together as contrasts, it indicates the starting points (origins), not the methods, that differ.
The method is the same for both - faith, but their origin (starting points) are different.
Or ..... I sound like someone that knows Greek, which I do.so what? by definition, it is the object of faith that defines it. Faith is only as good as its object.
You sound like one of these people who would qualify everything in the Bible by saying 'it depends on your personal learning method' and you'd have a list of 9 based on the latest in research from Stanford U, etc.
Yes, several prepositions can say the same thing, more in the abstract world than the concrete.
What were the two starting points, IP?Yes, they had two starting points
I'll help out a little by showing the contrast in Greek and why they differ (by vs. through).
Romans 3:30 since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcisedthrough faith is one.
Romans 3:30 επειπερ εις ο θεος ος δικαιωσει περιτομην εκ πιστεως και ακροβυστιαν δια της πιστεως
Both are prepositions.
The prepositions can indicate motion or method, depending on the construction.
For the construction of the above verse:
ek indicates motion out from an origin - the starting place which can be physical or mental depending on context.
dia (in this construction it is with the 'genitive') indicates motion through a place (a physical place, a situation, an idea).
If it had been with the 'accusative', it would indicate method - the means by which something occurs (on account of, because of).
By using these two together as contrasts, it indicates the starting points (origins), not the methods, that differ.
The method is the same for both - faith, but their origin (starting points) are different.
What were the two starting points, IP?
opcorn:
Or ..... I sound like someone that knows Greek, which I do.
There is a contrast and some folks were wondering what the contrast was. I gave the contrast.
The origin (starting point) of the circumcision's faith differed from the origin (starting point) of the uncircumcision's faith.
You can go right ahead and ignore the contrast if you want to, but it's till there.
The verse in question doesn't mention "gospel" so no contrast is made between their gospels.I didn't ignore, but the declaration shows it doesn't matter. Because the Gospel is one objective reality. It is not a different gospel for the two , which is why I started this post. There is one Gospel that justifies.
Have you ever tried not to find a fracture? Have you ever tried to find a unifying doctrine?
There never was a question that the two starting points were circ vs uncirc. The reason he is saying all this is because there is not a bombastically created 2nd gospel by some know it alls 20 centuries later.
You should use some of your skills on Gal 2's one Gospel.
Cool!Hmmm.... I'm not sure if this fits, but I do see what STP might have been talking about.
So, the circumcision were justified by faith when they did something.
By faith Abel offered
By faith Enoch pleased God.
By faith Noah prepared an ark
By faith Abraham obeyed ... By faith he sojourned
And the uncircumcision were justified through faith when they believed God.Heb. 11:11 Through faith also Sara herself received strength to conceive seed, and was delivered of a child when she was past age, because she judged him faithful who had promised.
Romans 4:18 Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be.
Romans 4:21
And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.
I've always expected that God required more from His chosen people than of others. After all, they did have an advantage.Romans 3:1-2
What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision? Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
Because the Gospel is one objective reality..... Have you ever tried not to find a fracture? ?
because there is not a bombastically created 2nd gospel by some know it alls 20 centuries later.
... by some know it alls...
...the greek grammar...
I think this Interloper fella might have a brain fracture, saint john.Imafixinta write that one down("the english grammar").
That one, also.
Vs.
Got it. Thanks for checkin' in, as the LORD God checked you out, years ago...
I think this Interloper fella might have a brain fracture, saint john.
The verse in question doesn't mention "gospel" so no contrast is made between their gospels.
The contrast is between the origin (starting point) of the circumcision and the origin of the uncircumcision.
When scripture presents a contrast, it shouldn't be ignored as if it doesn't matter.
Others here, like GloryDaz are studying it out to find the origins.
If you don't want to, or don't know, just say so.
Nice try:
The verse in question doesn't mention "gospel" so no contrast is made between their gospels.
The contrast is between the origin (starting point) of the circumcision and the origin of the uncircumcision.
That is the kind of narrow reading that makes the bible fractured and makes it stink.
there is one gospel, that is why there is one gospel mentioned. The whole development, argument of the material is the Gospel. You are a professional at not finding what is there, and implanting what is not there.
I know better than you they started two ways but there is one gospel on which they are unified and why the anti-climax paragraph of Rom 3 is there. That there is one God and one Gospel that justifies.
Your incessant trying to find 2 of this, or fractures of that, is sickening because it was such a beautiful message before your little club here came along to try to gain 5 mins of internet fame.
Why did Paul immediately break the agreement, then, by preaching to Jews in Acts 17-20?
No answer. Because the gospel of uncircumcision was to include some Jews.
The New Covenant preceded the Old, Mayor, had you a grasp of "the greek grammar," and were not so obtuse, and fractional, Mayor Frank Burns "nose it all."