The religions are related, like it or not. They are also very different- but that has nothing to do with the technical question of the how the OT is divided into sections. Jacob, irrespective of his beliefs, has presented the Jewish division of the Hebrew Bible.
Christianity and Judaism are two different religions.
Christianity does not divide the OT into 3 segments. Judaism divides the OT into 3 segments.
It does remain a fact that Jesus used at least part of the Jewish division of the Bible. He refers to "The Law"- which means the 5 books of Moses (Torah). And to the "Prophets".
Referring to the Law does not mean Jesus was referring to "Torah" as indicated in the TaNaKh. Jesus also said that what David wrote in Psalms was Law. There are other laws mentioned in the NT that do not occur in the Mosaic Law.
The
King James version refers to the first 5 books of the Bible as "The First Book of Moses", "The Second book of Moses" and so on. So those Christians accepted that part of the traditional division.
The KJ did not use "Torah", it said Moses - because Moses wrote them
It seems that you are hung up here on something that is not really that important. I am not sure why. Maybe you need to disagree with certain posters here, even on things that are not important.
The person who started all of this has started at least 2 threads and keeps referring to it as if it means something. So far, all questions and comments have been answered with a "no", without discussion. No one is actually sure why this topic was brought up and the significance of it. This person seems to think they are knowledgeable, when they are not. This person appears to be parroting information heard from Messianicism, which makes it highly questionable. This person, who says he is a Jew and practicing Judaism and Christianity seems to think that Christians should be keeping the Mosaic Law. Do you believe this as well?
