ECT The Same Yesterday, and Today, and For Ever

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I explained that already, but you're to stubborn to even listen.

You explained nothing. If you are right then we must believe that the Lord Jesus is now in heaven in a flesh and bone body but at the same time Paul describes Him as being invisible.

We are supposed to believe that even though the Lord Jesus said that He came to the earth as a Man that He really didn't mean it because He didn't become a Man until he was born of Mary!

And then to top it off you assert that what is said in the book of Revelation has nothing to do with the Body of Christ despite the fact that after the saints are caught up they will always be with the Lord Jesus.

Even though we see the Lord Jesus sitting on the throne of God at Revelation 22:3 you must think that those in the Body are not with Him because the book of Revelation has nothing to with those in the Body of Christ.

Before it is all over I am sure that there will be no verses left which you have not perverted.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
But He is invisible now:

"Howbeit for this cause I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might shew forth all longsuffering, for a pattern to them which should hereafter believe on him to life everlasting. Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, be honour and glory for ever and ever" (1 Tim.1:16-17).​

He is now in heaven as Man and Paul describes Him as being invisible. He certainly did not enter heaven in a fleshy body because flesh and blood bodies cannot enter the heavenly kingdom (1 Cor.15:50).



That is NOT what Paul said. Instead he said that "the things which are not seen are eternal."



So even though the book of Revelation shows the Lord Jesus reigning from the throne of God those in the Body of Christ will have no part in that, even though those in the Body are told that after they meet Him in the air they will be with Him forever?

I have never ever seen such a bad case or wrongly dividing the Bible in my whole life!

You are clueless!

The context of "invisible" is that He is not visible to mankind, now, after the ascension to heaven, into the third heaven-not that He does not have the same glorified, "flesh and bone" resurrected body, that is "see-able"; but He will be visible again, at "the second time"(Acts 7:13 KJV,Hebrews 9:28 KJV).


But, then again, you are always right, and the rest of us MAD wacko's are clueless.
 

Right Divider

Body part
You explained nothing. If you are right then we must believe that the Lord Jesus is now in heaven in a flesh and bone body but at the same time Paul describes Him as being invisible.
So now we have the JS mantra. How nice.

Poor stubborn Jerry accepts no explanation but his own.

We are supposed to believe that even though the Lord Jesus said that He came to the earth as a Man that He really didn't mean it because He didn't become a Man until he was born of Mary!
Your misunderstanding of that is actually a bit funny. So even though a MAN is someone born of the WOMAN (except the first man, of course), Jesus was a MAN before He was born. Please show us the scripture where Jesus became a MAN before His birth.

And then to top it off you assert that what is said in the book of Revelation has nothing to do with the Body of Christ despite the fact that after the saints are caught up they will always be with the Lord Jesus.
So you cannot understand that the book of Revelation is all about things that are spoken of throughout the prophets of Israel? Par for the course for a "dispensational Bible masher".

Even though we see the Lord Jesus sitting on the throne of God at Revelation 22:3 you must think that those in the Body are not with Him because the book of Revelation has nothing to with those in the Body of Christ.
Perhaps I don't mean absolutely nothing in the sense that you are trying to portray it, but it is clear that there are parallels throughout Revelation with the prophets of Israel and their earthly inheritance.

Israel's inheritance: earth
Body of Christ: heaven

Someday, God brings those two together in Christ (Eph 1:10).

Before it is all over I am sure that there will be no verses left which you have not perverted.
Thanks Jerry. So glad that you are a brother in Christ.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
The context of "invisible" is that He is not visible to mankind, now, after the ascension to heaven, into the third heaven-not that He does not have the same glorified, "flesh and bone" resurrected body, that is "see-able"; but He will be visible again, at "the second time"(Acts 7:13 KJV,Hebrews 9:28 KJV).

You confuse "out of sight" with "invisible."

Are we supposed to believe that even though God is described as being "invisible" He really can be seen but He is just out of sight?

Here is what Paul said about the Lord Jesus:

"Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature"
(Col.1:15).​

Is God described as being invisible only because He is out of sight?
 

DAN P

Well-known member
We are made in the likeness of Adam but all of Adam's descendants emerge from the womb spiritually alive, not spiritually dead. "Original Sin" is a myth and nothing more.


Hi Jerry and do you know what 1 Cor 2:14 means ?

The main focus is on the Greek word RECEIVETH / DECHOWAI mean ?

That Greek word is in the Greek PRESENT TENSE means it is ONLY happens in the dispensation of Grace NOT in the under the Kingdom Program !!

The Natural man does NOT understand Spiritual things as they are FOOLISHNESS to him !!

You like to blend the so-called NT together , like BLENDING Law and GRACE !!

dan p
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
You confuse "out of sight" with "invisible."

Are we supposed to believe that even though God is described as being "invisible" He really can be seen but He is just out of sight?

Yes. Any other questions?
Here is what Paul said about the Lord Jesus:

"Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature"
(Col.1:15).​

Is God described as invisible only because He is out of sight?

Translation: All biblical words mean the same thing, the context is irrelevant.


Colossians 1:16 KJV For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:

The context of "invisble" I cited, is the same here:

that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible,


As an analogy, for eg., a rock, now deep within the mantle of the earth, is presently unable to be seen by mankind, by "mortal" eyes; and, as far as I know, the technology does not currently exist to retrieve it, but that does not lead to the conclusion that the rock is not inherently, or metaphysically unable to be seen by mankind, by mortal eyes. The explanation for man’s inability to see the Lord Jesus Christ, presently, does not lie in the Saviour's "non-physical nature," as He still retains His glorified, "flesh and bone" resurrected body, as a man, but in His "location" now, behind a veil of glory, in the third heaven,impenetrable/impassable/"bullet proof" by mortal human eyes.


Did Judas preach 1 Cor. 15:1-4 KJV? "gospel?"


But, then again, you are always right.
 
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Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Please show us the scripture where Jesus became a MAN before His birth.

The Lord Jesus came down from heaven as a Man so that can only mean that He was Man before He was born of Mary:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

The words here are very specific and they are saying that no MAN hath ascended up to heaven except the MAN who came down from heaven, and that is speaking about the MAN Jesus Christ. He came down from heaven as a MAN and He ascended into heaven as a MAN.

And since He came down from heaven as a Man then common sense dictates that that He was MAN before He was born of Mary. but these things are way above your limited understanding because you refuse to believe what is written at John 3:13. And you refuse to believe what the Lord Jesus said here:

"What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?"
(Jn.6:62).​

According to the Lord's own words He was in heaven as MAN before He came to the earth.

But you just refuse to believe Him.

So you cannot understand that the book of Revelation is all about things that are spoken of throughout the prophets of Israel? Par for the course for a "dispensational Bible masher".

So those in the Body of Christ will not be with the Lord Jesus when He will be seated on the throne of God at Revelation 22:3?

Despite the fact that Paul said that after the saints will be caught up they will always be with Him (1 Thess.4:17)?

Tell me why I should believe you instead of Paul?

Israel's inheritance: earth

Then why were first century Israelites baptized into the Body of Christ since their inheritance was only earth?

And what is going to happen to the Jews who will be on the earth during the kingdom when the Lord Jesus delivers that kingdom to God (1 Cor.15:24)?

Where will the kingom be delivered and what will happen to the Jewish believers from the earthly kingdom?
 

Right Divider

Body part
The Lord Jesus came down from heaven as a Man so that can only mean that He was Man before He was born of Mary:
"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

The words here are very specific and they are saying that no MAN hath ascended up to heaven except the MAN who came down from heaven, and that is speaking about the MAN Jesus Christ. He came down from heaven as a MAN and He ascended into heaven as a MAN.
The term "Son of man" is NOT simply a reference to His humanity.
The term "Son of God" is NOT simply a reference to His deity.

Sorry that you are confused about that.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I asked you:

"Are we supposed to believe that even though God is described as being "invisible" He really can be seen but He is just out of sight?

Here is your answer:

Yes. Any other questions?

What does it mean that God is "spirit" (Jn.4:24)?

The context of "invisble" I cited, is the same here:

that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible,

So even though God is in heaven and He is spirit and "invisible" He is just out of sight?
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
That stunner clinches the debate.

What about you?

Do you deny that the Lord Jesus came down to earth as Man?:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

Perhaps you are right and we should understand that what is really meant here is that no "man" hath ascended up to heaven except for the God Jesus Christ who came down to earth. Do you really think that the Lord Jesus made a mistake when He said "Son of Man" when He actually meant to say "Son of God"?

Or maybe you agree with Right Divider when he said that "the term 'Son of man' is NOT simply a reference to His humanity." If he is right then what do those words signify?
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame

So even though God is in heaven and He is spirit and "invisible" He is just out of sight?

He is both spirit, and a man....The God/man, and "out of sight," invisible, as I explained the context. Again:


You: All biblical words mean the same thing, the context is irrelevant.


Colossians 1:16 KJV For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:

The context of "invisble" I cited, is the same here:

that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible,


As an analogy, for eg., a rock, now deep within the mantle of the earth, is presently unable to be seen by mankind, by "mortal" eyes; and, as far as I know, the technology does not currently exist to retrieve it, but that does not lead to the conclusion that the rock is not inherently, or metaphysically unable to be seen by mankind, by mortal eyes. The explanation for man’s inability to see the Lord Jesus Christ, presently, does not lie in the Saviour's "non-physical nature," as He still retains His glorified, "flesh and bone" resurrected body, as a man, but in His "location" now, behind a veil of glory, in the third heaven,impenetrable/impassable/"bullet proof" by mortal human eyes.


Did Judas preach 1 Cor. 15:1-4 KJV? "gospel?
"


But, then again, you are always right.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
He is both spirit, and a man....The God/man, and "out of sight," invisible, as I explained the context.

So when the Lord Jesus said the following about the Father He actually thought that the Father is both spirit and Man?:

"But the hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth; for the Father is seeking such to worship Him. God is Spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth" (Jn.4:23-24).​

Obviously the Lord Jesus was saying that it is the Father who is spirit.

So do you still argue that even though the Father is spirit and He is also invisible He is merely out of sight?

The Father is spirit and invisible but according to you He is entirely visible!

And I never said that Judas preached 1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV gospel. In fact, I was arguing that the gospel which was preached at Luke 9:6 was not that gospel. Do you think that the Jews who heard that gospel were saved when they believed it?
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
What about you?

Do you deny that the Lord Jesus came down to earth as Man?:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

Perhaps you are right and we should understand that what is really meant here is that no "man" hath ascended up to heaven except for the God Jesus Christ who came down to earth. Do you really think that the Lord Jesus made a mistake when He said "Son of Man" when He actually meant to say "Son of God"?

Or maybe you agree with Right Divider when he said that "the term 'Son of man' is NOT simply a reference to His humanity." If he is right then what do those words signify?
But you just refuse to believe Him.

What about you? You just refuse to believe the bible.


Check. I won! Fun!
 

God's Truth

New member
You spam that clincher to everyone, you loser.


No, I gave you scripture and it proves how wrong you are.

See how that works, you troll, clown?

In my humble opinion, when I discuss with you, it is as speaking to a person who needs a Catholic exorcism. lol

Really though, you need the Lord.
 
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