Surely you jest?!
Are you claiming, that at your age, you have never researched the biblical references to God's "remnant?"
Thoroughly and many times.
Surely you jest?!
Are you claiming, that at your age, you have never researched the biblical references to God's "remnant?"
If I may: it is the authentic church/believers.
Thoroughly and many times.
So why do you disingenuosly ask who they might be, if you already know . . .?
Who decides that?
What scriptures do you and others cite that use the word 'remnant' to refer to believers in the church today?
Romans 11:5
...which refers to a believing remnant of Israel, as 'remnant' most of the time does throughout Scripture.
So, the definition of "remnant" is Jewish believers in God, right?
Not biological or national Israel, but believing Israelites . . right?
Thus, the definition of the "remnant" is spiritual. Defining only the faithful according to the "election of grace," correct?
Now that's the dialectic triadic movement expressed eloquently.
But Paul says that "us" is both Jew and Gentile now, and that a person stands (keeps in the 'tree') by faith. The idea related to the apostasy (departure) is that a remnant remains. It never was trying to say that race determined it (in either old or new covenant eras), but while speaking to 1st century Judaism, the apostles had to say it was not the race that mattered, to say the obvious.
Took you some time to come up with that irrelevant response, Steko.
Ro 11:1-10, which includes 11:5, is speaking exclusively of ethnic Israel believing and unbelieving.
One can't justifiably reach out and grab the later parts of Ro 11 or even Eph 2 and cram it into Ro 11:1-10 without some sort of dialectic monkey business.
So, the definition of "remnant" is Jewish believers in God, right?
Not biological or national Israel, but believing Israelites . . right?
Thus, the definition of the "remnant" is spiritual. Defining only the faithful according to the "election of grace," correct?
So, the definition of "remnant" is Jewish believers in God, right?
Not biological or national Israel, but believing Israelites . . right?
Thus, the definition of the "remnant" is spiritual. Defining only the faithful according to the "election of grace," correct?
The remnant which Paul writes about in Romans 11: 1-5 is the remnant of Old Covenant Israel, with which God began the New Covenant. But this remnant of Old Covenant Israel was changed, as was Paul, and no longer followed "kata sarka," or, according to the flesh.
When Paul says in Romans 10: 12 that "For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. 11. For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. 12. For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him," he means this.
"For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus.
27.For as many of you as have been baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
28.There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus." Galatians 3: 26-28
For the elect of God, those who are saved and changed, there is no longer a partition between Jews and Gentiles among those of faith. "But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. 14. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; 15. Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
16. And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:" Ephesians 2: 13-16
That there is no longer a separation between Jews of faith and non-Jews of faith is a fundamental doctrine of the Gospel of Christ and a starting doctrine of the Everlasting New Covenant. To argue against this fundamental doctrine and say there now remains a separation is to go off into heresy and false doctrine.
I'm afraid its too much history for the high priest STP and his make up kit.
I'm afraid its too much history for the high priest STP and his make up kit.
May as well face the facts:
1. Mystery of Christ- that Christ was dying for the sins of Israel, and Gentiles associated with Israel. This mystery was hidden in the scriptures of the prophets.
2. Mystery of the Gospel- that Christ died for all men, to be testified in due time, including Gentiles never associated with Israel whatsoever. This mystery was not hidden in the prophets, but was hidden in God.
Put down your commentaries, and pick up a KJB, and believe what you read.
You haven't been paying attention, IP - (though not all do) most of those who's "Dispensationalism" on here you oppose hold a view on Rom. 16:26 somewhat similar to your own - within their view it refers to a thing that supposedly had been hidden in the OT.
You actually share that incompetence with them :chuckle:
Nevertheless, Romans 5:8