The NINE Commandments

[7djengo7]

Please try to explain to us why you call it "sinning" for gentiles to not obey the Mosaic Law--commandments not given to the gentiles?

I would like to add something I find interesting regarding Paul's language in Romans 2:14, where he says:

For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves

Notice that he did not say that the Gentiles obey the law, are obedient to the law, keep the law, etc. Instead, he said that they do by nature the things contained in the law. I take it that not murdering and not committing adultery are some of the things contained in the law. Which seems to show that one can (as he or she ought!) avoid murdering, or avoid committing adultery, with such avoidances of sin not necessarily being instances of obedience to the law.

 

[Idolater]

They pertain to all men.
Is murder not a sin to you ?
Thievery ?
Adultery ?
Drunkenness ?
Paul wrote..."But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law."
19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies,
21 Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God." (Gal 5:18-21)
It would seem that everyone not "led by the Spirit" is under the Law.
And all who commit works of the flesh shall not inherit the kingdom of God.
The real division between heaven and hell isn't the Law, it is the works of the flesh.
The flesh is subject to the Law !

Here's where he excerpts from the law of Moses. He specifically does not mention Exodus 4:3, even though you asked him point blank about it, in an earlier post, but here he does indirectly address Exodus 4:3—meaning to say he doesn't even mention it, even though he's setting out what he means itt. He means his EXCERPTS of the law of Moses—not the whole law of Moses. He never meant circumcision either, or any of the washings, or festivals or holidays of obligation or anything like that.

So he's not a Messianic Jew. (Messianic Jews DO mean all those things—they were, under Catholicism, dispatched in Acts 15, but somebody invented Messianic Judaism in the 1800s—along with Mormonism and JWism. (And Acts 9erism, but who's counting.)

The idea that a moral law applies to the Church is ancient, and Catholic. The idea that it's an amended law of Moses, with some changes, and some other things conserved, is also ancient and Catholic. " @Hoping " seems to have had a preference for Catholic morality, based on the refreshment of my memory, skimming through this old thread. He would never say that, although, I don't remember if he said he was a cradle Catholic—yeah I can't remember. He thought Catholicism was a cult. He never would have agreed that anything he thought agreed with Catholicism. He would say No the Catholics Don't Believe That, or he would make it seem like, even though he believed exactly what Catholicism believed, that didn't mean he believed Catholic stuff.