Jerry Shugart
Well-known member
In the following verse Paul speaks about other Jews who were "in Christ" before he was:
In the following passage Paul says the following:
"Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new" (2 Cor.5:17).
Since Paul said that if "anyone" is "in Christ" he is a new creature then he would remain consistent in the way he used the term "in Christ" when he wrote about people being "in Christ." If he did use the term "in Christ" one way when speaking of people being "in Christ" and then turn around and use it in an entirely different sense then that would lead to confusion, and the LORD is not the author of confusion.
It is not difficult to understand what it means to be in Christ when Paul speaks of people being "in Christ" when we look at the following words of Paul:
"So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another" (Ro.12:5).
So we can understand that when Paul speaks of other Jews being "in Christ" before he was we can understand that he was saying that others were in the Body of Christ before he was. Besides that, at Romans 5:11 Paul speaks of a believing "remnant" of Jews and in the following passage Paul speaks of two groups being reconciled unto God in "one Body":
"But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby" (Eph.2:13-16).
Of course the two groups in this passage are the believing remnant of Romans 11:5 and the believing Gentiles. Who else could those two groups be?
Of course the Neo-MADs on this forum refuse to tell us the identity of the two groups. These same Neo-MADs also say that the believing Jews who lived under the law could not be saved apart from works despite what we read in the following verse:
"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life" (Jn.3:16).
The Neo-MADs evidently don't know the meaning of the word "whosoever" in this verse or they don't want to know its meaning because they just flat out refuse to believe those words.
And then they have the audacity to declare that they believe the Bible. They are the biggest hypocrites on this forum and the next time one of them attacks you like they attack everyone who doesn't agree with them then just quote John 3:16 and ask them if they know the meaning of the word "whosoever."
"Salute Andronicus and Junia, my kinsmen, and my fellowprisoners, who are of note among the apostles, who also were in Christ before me" (Ro.16:7).
In the following passage Paul says the following:
"Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new" (2 Cor.5:17).
Since Paul said that if "anyone" is "in Christ" he is a new creature then he would remain consistent in the way he used the term "in Christ" when he wrote about people being "in Christ." If he did use the term "in Christ" one way when speaking of people being "in Christ" and then turn around and use it in an entirely different sense then that would lead to confusion, and the LORD is not the author of confusion.
It is not difficult to understand what it means to be in Christ when Paul speaks of people being "in Christ" when we look at the following words of Paul:
"So we, being many, are one body in Christ, and every one members one of another" (Ro.12:5).
So we can understand that when Paul speaks of other Jews being "in Christ" before he was we can understand that he was saying that others were in the Body of Christ before he was. Besides that, at Romans 5:11 Paul speaks of a believing "remnant" of Jews and in the following passage Paul speaks of two groups being reconciled unto God in "one Body":
"But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ. For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby" (Eph.2:13-16).
Of course the two groups in this passage are the believing remnant of Romans 11:5 and the believing Gentiles. Who else could those two groups be?
Of course the Neo-MADs on this forum refuse to tell us the identity of the two groups. These same Neo-MADs also say that the believing Jews who lived under the law could not be saved apart from works despite what we read in the following verse:
"For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life" (Jn.3:16).
The Neo-MADs evidently don't know the meaning of the word "whosoever" in this verse or they don't want to know its meaning because they just flat out refuse to believe those words.
And then they have the audacity to declare that they believe the Bible. They are the biggest hypocrites on this forum and the next time one of them attacks you like they attack everyone who doesn't agree with them then just quote John 3:16 and ask them if they know the meaning of the word "whosoever."
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