The Lord Jesus Gave His Life a Ransom For Who?

[beloved57]

I have another explanation. You say above that, "In the first verse it says that he gave his life as a ransom for all. Then, in the second verse it says that he gave his life for many but not for all."

It happens that, after he wrote the first verse and before he wrote the second, he checked Isaiah 53 and found out that the Suffering Servant had given his life for many, not for all. (Isaiah 53:11)

Then, he went back and fixed the mistake he had committed with the plagiarism of Isaiah 53:11. However, he did not care to verify the truth about Isaiah 53:11.

The following is said in there: "My righteous servant makes many righteous for it is their punishment that he bears." The righteous servant aka the Suffering Servant aka Messiah ben Joseph (Isaiah 41:8,9; 44:1,2,21)was rejected by HaShem so that Messiah ben David aka Judah be redeemed. (Psalm 78:67-70)

So, Israel, qua Scapegoat, redeemed the many aka Judah. Not all because Israel the Ten Tribes had to go. But why did Israel have to bear the punishment of Judah? Because the Lord had promised David that He would save him his Tribe of Judah to remain as a Lamp in Jerusalem forever. (I Kings 11:36)

The bottom line is that all had to happen between Israel and Judah aka Messiah ben Joseph versus Messiah ben David. Sorry but, nothing to do with Jesus!

What about the golden calf worship? Did the golden calf die for many?

 

[Jerry Shugart]

It happens that, after he wrote the first verse and before he wrote the second, he checked Isaiah 53 and found out that the Suffering Servant had given his life for many, not for all. (Isaiah 53:11)

You have already proved that you do not believe what Moses wrote here concerning Abraham:

"And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness" (Gen.15:6).​

You do not believe what Moses wrote and that explains why you do not believe in the Lord Jesus. Here is what He said:

"For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me" (Jn.5:46).​

 

[Ben Masada]

You have already proved that you do not believe what Moses wrote here concerning Abraham: "And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness" (Gen.15:6).You do not believe what Moses wrote and that explains why you do not believe in the Lord Jesus. Here is what He said: "For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me; for he wrote of me" (Jn.5:46).

Okay, so, do you believe in Jesus? Assuming you do, he declared that, to achieve salvation, one must listen to "Moses" aka the Law. (Luke 16:29-31) Do you think he was telling the truth? Again, assuming you do, do you live by the Law? Now, I don't want to assume anymore. I wanna have your answer.

 

[beloved57]

Okay, so, do you believe in Jesus? Assuming you do, he declared that, to achieve salvation, one must listen to "Moses" aka the Law. (Luke 16:29-31) Do you think he was telling the truth? Again, assuming you do, do you live by the Law? Now, I don't want to assume anymore. I wanna have your answer.

Can we listen to the golden calf?

 

[Jerry Shugart]

Okay, so, do you believe in Jesus? Assuming you do, he declared that, to achieve salvation, one must listen to "Moses" aka the Law. (Luke 16:29-31) Do you think he was telling the truth? Again, assuming you do, do you live by the Law? Now, I don't want to assume anymore. I wanna have your answer.

Of course those words of the Lord Jesus were addressed to the children of Israel. I am a Gentile and I am not under the Law, as witnessed by what Paul said here:

"For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves" (Ro.2:14).​

 

[Ben Masada]

Of course those words of the Lord Jesus were addressed to the children of Israel. I am a Gentile and I am not under the Law, as witnessed by what Paul said here: "For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves" (Ro.2:14).

So, you don't follow what Jesus taught but what Paul taught. Do you know why Paul said that he had been released from the Law? (Romans 7:6) Because he could not get rid of his sinful condition he was a slave of. If you read Romans 7:25, he declared that he had the Law only in his mind while serving sin in his flesh. And that's the man you give up on Jesus to obey him. The Decalogue in "Moses" is for all, Jews and Gentiles. Evidence of the fact is that if you break the law of the Land which is almost 100% of the Decalogue, you will be in big trouble even in danger of life. So, when Jesus said to listen to "Moses" aka the Law, he meant both Jews and Gentiles.

 

[Jerry Shugart]

So, when Jesus said to listen to "Moses" aka the Law, he meant both Jews and Gentiles.

No, He said this:

"But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel"(Mt.15:24).​

 

[Jerry Shugart]

So, you don't follow what Jesus taught but what Paul taught. Do you know why Paul said that he had been released from the Law? (Romans 7:6) Because he could not get rid of his sinful condition he was a slave of.

So I guess that you have been able to get rid of your sinful condition?

Are you able to do this?:

"Master, which is the great commandment in the law? Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind. This is the first and great commandment. And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself. On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets" (Mt.22:36-40).​

 

[DAN P]

Let us look at these two verses:

"For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;Who gave himself a ransom for (hyper) all, to be testified in due time" (1 Tim.2:6).​

"Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for (anti) many" (Mt.20:28).​

In the first verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "all." Then in the second verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "many," but not all.

How can this be explained? The key to understanding the difference is understanding the meaning of the Greek words translated "for" in both verses.

In the first verse the Greek word translated "for" is hyper, and one of the meanings of that word is "on behalf of" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). The Lord Jesus died on "behalf" of ALL MEN.

In the second verse the Greek word anti is translated as "for," and that word means "in place of" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). So the Lord gave His life a ransom in place of MANY, but not all.

So we can see that the Lord Jesus gave His life as a ransom on behalf of all men but the Lord only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" MANY people but not all.

The Lord Jesus only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" those who believe the gospel of our salvation. But He died on behalf of all men.

Hi Jerry and what does " inn DUR TIME " mean in 1 Tim 2:6 mean OR does it remind you of Cor 15:8 , born " in DUE TIME ?


There is a big difference between these 2 verses 11

dan p