The Lord Jesus Gave His Life a Ransom For Who?

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Let us look at these two verses:

"For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;Who gave himself a ransom for (hyper) all, to be testified in due time" (1 Tim.2:6).​

"Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for (anti) many" (Mt.20:28).​

In the first verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "all." Then in the second verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "many," but not all.

How can this be explained? The key to understanding the difference is understanding the meaning of the Greek words translated "for" in both verses.

In the first verse the Greek word translated "for" is hyper, and one of the meanings of that word is "on behalf of" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). The Lord Jesus died on "behalf" of ALL MEN.

In the second verse the Greek word anti is translated as "for," and that word means "in place of" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). So the Lord gave His life a ransom in place of MANY, but not all.

So we can see that the Lord Jesus gave His life as a ransom on behalf of all men but the Lord only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" MANY people but not all.

The Lord Jesus only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" those who believe the gospel of our salvation. But He died on behalf of all men.
 

patrick jane

BANNED
Banned
Let us look at these two verses:
"For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;Who gave himself a ransom for (hyper) all, to be testified in due time" (1 Tim.2:6).​
"Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for (anti) many" (Mt.20:28).​

In the first verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "all." Then in the second verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "many," but not all.

How can this be explained? The key to understanding the difference is understanding the meaning of the Greek words translated "for" in both verses.

In the first verse the Greek word translated "for" is hyper, and one of the meanings of that word is "on behalf of" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). The Lord Jesus died on "behalf" of ALL MEN.

In the second verse the Greek word anti is translated as "for," and that word means "in place of" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). So the Lord gave His life a ransom in place of MANY, but not all.

So we can see that the Lord Jesus gave His life as a ransom on behalf of all men but the Lord only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" MANY people but not all.

The Lord Jesus only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" those who believe the gospel of our salvation. But He died on behalf of all men.
That's why some go to hell
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
"For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son" (Jn.5:22).​

John 12:47 And if anyone hears My words and does not believe, I do not judge him, for I did not come to judge the world but to save the world.​
 

beloved57

Well-known member
Let us look at these two verses:

"For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;Who gave himself a ransom for (hyper) all, to be testified in due time" (1 Tim.2:6).​

"Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for (anti) many" (Mt.20:28).​

In the first verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "all." Then in the second verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "many," but not all.

How can this be explained? The key to understanding the difference is understanding the meaning of the Greek words translated "for" in both verses.

In the first verse the Greek word translated "for" is hyper, and one of the meanings of that word is "on behalf of" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). The Lord Jesus died on "behalf" of ALL MEN.

In the second verse the Greek word anti is translated as "for," and that word means "in place of" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). So the Lord gave His life a ransom in place of MANY, but not all.

So we can see that the Lord Jesus gave His life as a ransom on behalf of all men but the Lord only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" MANY people but not all.

The Lord Jesus only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" those who believe the gospel of our salvation. But He died on behalf of all men.

The many and the all are the same. All of the many. You are handling the word of God deceitfully.
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
The law makes everyone accountable to God. Jesus doesn't judge because the law judges all.

Yes, that's true, but the law must be represented by one or more persons to be applied.

Today we are judged by God's word and it will be the same in the second resurrection.
 

beameup

New member
According to the Watchtower theology (ie: Jehovah's Witness'), Jesus died a ransom for Adam.

The Jehovah's Witness' teach that you must "earn" your salvation by doing "good-works" (like keeping a time-card of your door-to-door witnessing). "Jehovah of the Watchtower" apparently grades on the curve.
 

Ben Masada

New member
Let us look at these two verses: "For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus;Who gave himself a ransom for (hyper) all, to be testified in due time" (1 Tim.2:6). "Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom for (anti) many" (Mt.20:28). In the first verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "all." Then in the second verse it says that He gave His life as a ransom for "many," but not all.

How can this be explained? The key to understanding the difference is understanding the meaning of the Greek words translated "for" in both verses. In the first verse the Greek word translated "for" is hyper, and one of the meanings of that word is "on behalf of" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon.) The Lord Jesus died on "behalf" of ALL MEN. In the second verse the Greek word anti is translated as "for," and that word means "in place of"(Thayer's Greek English Lexicon). So the Lord gave His life a ransom in place of MANY, but not all. So we can see that the Lord Jesus gave His life as a ransom on behalf of all men but the Lord only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" MANY people but not all. The Lord Jesus only gave His life as a ransom "in place of" those who believe the gospel of our salvation. But He died on behalf of all men.

I have another explanation. You say above that, "In the first verse it says that he gave his life as a ransom for all. Then, in the second verse it says that he gave his life for many but not for all."

It happens that, after he wrote the first verse and before he wrote the second, he checked Isaiah 53 and found out that the Suffering Servant had given his life for many, not for all. (Isaiah 53:11)

Then, he went back and fixed the mistake he had committed with the plagiarism of Isaiah 53:11. However, he did not care to verify the truth about Isaiah 53:11.

The following is said in there: "My righteous servant makes many righteous for it is their punishment that he bears." The righteous servant aka the Suffering Servant aka Messiah ben Joseph (Isaiah 41:8,9; 44:1,2,21)was rejected by HaShem so that Messiah ben David aka Judah be redeemed. (Psalm 78:67-70)

So, Israel, qua Scapegoat, redeemed the many aka Judah. Not all because Israel the Ten Tribes had to go. But why did Israel have to bear the punishment of Judah? Because the Lord had promised David that He would save him his Tribe of Judah to remain as a Lamp in Jerusalem forever. (I Kings 11:36)

The bottom line is that all had to happen between Israel and Judah aka Messiah ben Joseph versus Messiah ben David. Sorry but, nothing to do with Jesus!
 
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