Kevin
New member
Jerry,
But Jerry, you are comparing apples to oranges. In your example, pieces of paper were worth 1,000,000.00 because they money was already there in the first place.
In our debate, the blood of bulls and goats (the pieces of paper), was not worth the full redemption of Christ's blood (the 1 million $), because the blood of Christ had not been shed yet. Christ's blood wasn't there to validate the animals blood. Your example's validity depends upon the money already being there. If the money wasn't already there to back up what the pieces of paper represented, the pieces of paper would not be worth 1 million dollars. You are comparing apples to oranges.
Exactly. The future. This only backs up my arguement that shows that the blood of Christ wasn't there to purifiy the sins that were atoned for by the blood of bulls and goats, because this was a "future" event.
Agreed.
Disagree. Romans 5:9 is speaking of Jesus's blood. It is not possible to justify sinners by blood that had not been spilled yet. Heb. 9:15 states that it was "by means of death" that the sins of the first covenent were redeemed. So, before this death happened, the means by which their transgressions would be redeemed had not happened. It clearly states by what means the sins would be forgiven for the first covenent (by death), and until that means came to pass, redemption would not occur.
See above. The Bible clearly states what must take place in order for the sins of the first covenant to be forgiven. Until the means by which the sins of the first covenant takes place, the sins are still there.
Yes, and those sins would be redeemed by means of Christ's death for the redemption of sins under the first covenant.
Not true. Do you not think that God would be pleased with a sinner who comes to repentance and obeys the gospel? Obviously God is not pleased with sin, but I'm quite sure He is please with those who turn from their sins by burying the man through baptism, thus being alive to God.
The faith spoken of is not the kind that is dead unto itself. We have to "obey" the gospel, not just hear and believe. How do we obey the gospel? We have a clear example of how this is done in Acts 2:38. There, sinners were asking what they must do to be saved. What did Peter say? He said "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall recieve the gift of the Holy Spirit." This is a Biblically recorded example of how the gospel is obyed.
Well,in the same way that a pauper can go from being broke to being rich just by having some pieces of paper.Suppose the pauper´s uncle died and left him all the cash that was in his safety deposit box (this would be during the time when the Dollar was still backed by either gold or silver).In the box was $1,000,000.00.
But Jerry, you are comparing apples to oranges. In your example, pieces of paper were worth 1,000,000.00 because they money was already there in the first place.
In our debate, the blood of bulls and goats (the pieces of paper), was not worth the full redemption of Christ's blood (the 1 million $), because the blood of Christ had not been shed yet. Christ's blood wasn't there to validate the animals blood. Your example's validity depends upon the money already being there. If the money wasn't already there to back up what the pieces of paper represented, the pieces of paper would not be worth 1 million dollars. You are comparing apples to oranges.
...because He knew that in the future He could place those sins upon Christ at Calvary.
Exactly. The future. This only backs up my arguement that shows that the blood of Christ wasn't there to purifiy the sins that were atoned for by the blood of bulls and goats, because this was a "future" event.
Scripture reveals that God treats all men the same when it comes to salvation(He is no respecter of persons),whether he lived before the Cross or after the Cross.
Agreed.
Before the Cross the Lord could justify the sinner “by blood”(Ro.5:9)
Disagree. Romans 5:9 is speaking of Jesus's blood. It is not possible to justify sinners by blood that had not been spilled yet. Heb. 9:15 states that it was "by means of death" that the sins of the first covenent were redeemed. So, before this death happened, the means by which their transgressions would be redeemed had not happened. It clearly states by what means the sins would be forgiven for the first covenent (by death), and until that means came to pass, redemption would not occur.
If He can deal that way with things in the past,why couldn´t He be able to do the same thing in regard to the things that will happen in the future?
See above. The Bible clearly states what must take place in order for the sins of the first covenant to be forgiven. Until the means by which the sins of the first covenant takes place, the sins are still there.
So the Lord gave the priest the authority to make “atonement” for the sins of His people who were under the Mosaic Covenant.And the High Priest did in fact perform his priestly duties and the sins were taken from the people.
Yes, and those sins would be redeemed by means of Christ's death for the redemption of sins under the first covenant.
Well,the death of the Lord Jesus Christ has many applications in regard to the believer.So by these actions the Lord was given us “types” of the many applications that the death of Christ has in relationship with the sinner.These “types” help us to understand all the blessins we receive through the death of the Lord Jesus.And the sin-offering was but one of the many different “types” that represent the many different applications of His death in regard to the believer.
The sinner cannot please God.
Not true. Do you not think that God would be pleased with a sinner who comes to repentance and obeys the gospel? Obviously God is not pleased with sin, but I'm quite sure He is please with those who turn from their sins by burying the man through baptism, thus being alive to God.
Grace implies that there is no merit in him that receives it—there is no reason why he should be blessed.But that begs the question—how can one man be justified and another not,especially considering the fact that it does not depend on merit?It is because one rejects a righteousness which is independent of the sinner,and the other one accepts.How does one reject,and how does one accept?Well,he accepts by believing the gospel,and he rejects by disbelieving.—“Unto all and upon ALL THAT BELIEVE”.”It is by faith that it may be of grace”—any other ground would be inconsistent with grace.A sinner is “justified by faith”(Ro.5:1).
The faith spoken of is not the kind that is dead unto itself. We have to "obey" the gospel, not just hear and believe. How do we obey the gospel? We have a clear example of how this is done in Acts 2:38. There, sinners were asking what they must do to be saved. What did Peter say? He said "Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall recieve the gift of the Holy Spirit." This is a Biblically recorded example of how the gospel is obyed.
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