Act 15:7 And when there had been much disputing, Peter rose up, and said unto them, Men and brethren, ye know how that a good while ago God made choice among us, that the Gentiles by my mouth should hear the word of the gospel, and believe.
Act 11:1 And the apostles and brethren that were in Judaea heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God.
Act 11:2 And when Peter was come up to Jerusalem, they that were of the circumcision contended with him,
Act 11:3 Saying, Thou wentest in to men uncircumcised, and didst eat with them.
Act 11:18 When they heard these things, they held their peace, and glorified God, saying, Then hath God also to the Gentiles granted repentance unto life.
Now... who was the first to preach to Gentiles... Peter or Phillip?
The problem is with your question. You shouldn't blame me and be so ornery, because you can't seem to understand what I was saying. The time of their visitation had come, but the Jews rejected Him. I'm pretty sure that's what I've been saying. Jesus says the same here.
And I really don't care if you put me on block, so stop nagging me about it.
The burden would be to mention he was Jewish? You're kidding right?
He was going to Jerusalem to WORSHIP. He was reading from the book of Isaiah written in Hebrew.
You're calling me a liar. Don't deny it.
You're accusing me of contradicting myself, and I wasn't.
I should just report you.
Made up.
Sure... lots of gentiles picked up copies of Isaiah at the corner bookstore for their reading pleasure. :rotfl:
For clarification, can you concur with these two statements? (or explain why not?)
1. Jesus did not come to set up a physical kingdom on the earth that coexisted with other physical kingdoms: "My kingdom is not of this world."
2. The establishment of that kingdom over this earth is neither hindered nor prevented by whether the Jewish nation accepts Him.
You could try the constructive option of stating whether Jesus was prevented from his mission by the crucifixion or not. I don't care if you got words mixed up before; I would rather have a straight answer now.
Attendants to rulers (their wise men) are expected to be more knowledgeable.
1. Jesus did not come to set up a physical kingdom on the earth that coexisted with other physical kingdoms: "My kingdom is not of this world."
Jonah.
That's a stupid question.
Can you not read?
I think the question I'm wanting to explore is pretty clear to anyone with an IQ of 72 or higher.
Go ahead, try again. YOU CAN DO IT!
Clete
So why the question about the gospel?
Okay. It seems like I've already conceded this point to one degree or another.I suggest to you that those on Pentecost were not saved under the law of Moses. The law changed.
Jesus could not have offered Himself for the peoples sins under that law of Moses.
Heb. 7:11 Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron? 12 For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is necessarily a change in the law as well. 13 For the one of whom these things are spoken belonged to another tribe, from which no one has ever served at the altar. 14 For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, and in connection with that tribe Moses said nothing about priests.
Christ could not be high priest under the law of Moses.
Heb. 9:11 But when Christ appeared as a high priest of the good things that have come, then through the greater and more perfect tent (not made with hands, that is, not of this creation) 12 he entered once for all into the holy places, not by means of the blood of goats and calves but by means of his own blood, thus securing an eternal redemption.
Christ entered heaven as high priest and offered once and for all His blood for the sins of the people. Under a new covenant.
Heb. 9:5 Therefore he is the mediator of a new covenant, so that those who are called may receive the promised eternal inheritance, since a death has occurred that redeems them from the transgressions committed under the first covenant.
Who said I haven't considered it. I've considered it and rejected the idea that it's required for salvation. Whether it still has an important but unsalvific role to play is very debatable and needlessly divisive and as a result it is a debate I typically avoid.I've never known you to be difficult. How do you know they aren't relevant if you haven't considered how it fits in to the gospel. Paul baptized believers. He must have believed it had/has a purpose.
As others here have already argued, Paul baptized with the Holy Spirit.I suggest the same applies to us today.
This is after Acts 9, he's talking about Acts 9 but it's near the end of Paul's life and he tells us he was baptized to wash away his sins.
Acts 22:16 And now why do you wait? Rise and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on his name.’
Just like all the conversions we see back to Pentecost, they end in baptism. Where is Paul arguing against baptism instead of him practicing and preaching it.
Rom. 6:3 Do you not know that all of us who have been baptized into Christ Jesus were baptized into his death?
All of us who, that leaves out those who were not baptized.
As already conceded and plainly stated, water baptism was a practice that survived the change but faded with time, just as miracles did. It was a transisional practice and even if one insisted on maintaining the practice to this day, which many obviously do, it is something that a saved person does rather than something an unsaved person does to get saved. We are not saved by performing religious rituals, that's law, not grace.This is after Acts 9.
Acts 16:33 And he took them the same hour of the night and washed their wounds; and he was baptized at once, he and all his family.
Paul baptized a Gentile believer. Just as Jesus instructed and just as Peter did.
Especially if they're Jews.Attendants to rulers (their wise men) are expected to be more knowledgeable.
Look, either read the thread and participate substantively or go away.
Indeed, the issue was temporary.I can't say I agree with either statement.
This is Jesus' response when He was about to be delivered up for His death on the cross.
John 18:36 Jesus answered, My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews: but now is my kingdom not from hence.
It does apply. If they weren't saved under the law of Moses, what law were they saved under?The point is that it doesn't apply to the Body of Christ.
Argued yes, proven no. Receiving the Holy Spirit and being baptized WITH the Holy Spirit are two different things. For example. Acts 19. These men were believers and had already been water baptized and they received the Holy Spirit by Paul laying his hands and not any type of baptism. Paul would only lay hands on them after they had been baptized "in the name of" Jesus.As others here have already argued, Paul baptized with the Holy Spirit.
What makes you think that everyone must be saved under some law?It does apply. If they weren't saved under the law of Moses, what law were they saved under?
When Acts says that 'households' are baptized, if there are infants in those 'households,' how can you be sure that they would have been denied baptism until they were older?
fyi, in my estimation, the Catholic Church's sacrament of Confirmation is substantially similar to baptism, for those who believe in 'believers baptism' only, and not infant baptism. Confirmation involves conscious choice, like 'believers baptism.' And, Catholics must be confirmed to be in full communion with the Church.
And I also always thought that---once I thought of it---since circumcision was done in infancy, that baptism in infancy seems permissible at least. And there are lots of Presbyterians and I would guess Lutherans who believe in infant baptism too, not just Catholics.