ECT The Gospel of God's Grace

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
I showed you by the Scriptures that all people are born of the Holy Spirit at conception but you just turned your eyes from that truth.

I do believe that the Lord Jesus was made like his breathren in every way:

"Therefore he had to be made like his brothers in every respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people"
(Heb.2:11-12).​

Besides that, why did you just IGNORE everything which I said about what Paul said aboiut his salvation here?

"Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Spirit" (Titus 3:5).​

Joseph Henry Thayer says that the Greek word translated regeneration "denotes the restoration of a thing to its pristine state, its renovation" (Thayer's Greek English Lexicon).

Richard C. Trench says that the word has the meaning of "a recovery, a restoration" (Trench, Synonyms of the New Testament).

The word "restoration" means "a bringing back to its original position or condition" (Merriam-Webster.com).

So we can understand that when Paul used the Greek word translated "regeneration" to describe his salvation experience he was speaking of a repetition of a birth.

It is obvious that the reference is not to a "physical" rebirth, or the repetition of one's physical birth. Paul could only be speaking of a repetition of a spiritual birth. And the words that follow make it certain that the "birth" of which Paul is referring to is a "spiritual" birth--"renewing of the Holy Spirit."

The truth has no place in your heart, sonny boy!

You would rather cling to a teaching which makes the LORD the author of sin!

Do you still think men are born via the Holy Spirit, like the Saviour was, and we have no sin nature, when born, like the Saviour, or, that the virgin conception was quite irrelevant, as all people are born without sin?

Nice, Mormon....I shall call you "Donnie," effeminate humanist.
 

john w

New member
Hall of Fame
In verse 21 Paul says that 'the law and the Prophets testify" about this truth. What does he mean?

Do you still think men are born via the Holy Spirit, like the Saviour was, and we have no sin nature, when born, like the Saviour, or, that the virgin conception was quite irrelevant, as all people are born without sin?

Put up your pic, Donnie. I thought so.
 

Danoh

New member
In verse 21 Paul says that 'the law and the Prophets testify" about this truth. What does he mean?

You are just baiting one by your questions; attempting to bait them into your hoped for cornering of them into their agreeing with your supposed logic; the gaping holes of which are ever obvious but to you...

The gaping holes of which are ever pointing back to how you arrived at your errors to begin with.

Your assertions are off because your conclusions are off.

And your conclusions are off because the premise they are based on was off.

And your premise was off because you formed it from a yet incomplete information gathering, when you proceeded forward to form said off-base premise.

I laid all this out to the hybrids on here long ago.

It went right past each their heads.

Induction (information gathering);

Working Premise from said information;

Deduction of a Conclusion from said Working Premise;

Assertion.

Continually repeated recycling of those steps, towards constant updating and or further refinement of one's every conclusion.

Jordan (of GSB) does that better than just about everyone else out there whom I have heard and or read to this very day.

Kurth (of the BBS) has that to a high degree (he picked up it from running with Jordan for a time).

The W.P. Heath (of TCM) had that to a VERY high degree.

E.C. Moore - not even close to how high those men have had that skill.

He crippled himself from ever achieving the skill by his erroneous mix of Stam and Welch.

You; obviously you've been sent back to wait for the bus to show up to drop you off at Mid-Acts 101.

Either that, or you landed on your head.

Hard.

Real hard.

:chuckle:

Rom. 5: 6-8.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
You are just baiting one by your questions; attempting to bait them into your hoped for cornering of them into their agreeing with your supposed logic; the gaping holes of which are ever obvious but to you...

You say that others are wrong but when it comes to proving that they are wrong you offer nothing at all. Just because you say someone is error proves nothing. Hadn't you figured that out yet?

I hadn't found anyone who thinks that you are the final authority even though you think that you are.

Buy yourself a Bible and if you want to prove that someone is wrong then use the Scriptures to do that. But you need to realize just because you say that someone is in error means absolutely nothing unless you can prove it by quoting the Scriptures.

And so far you have not done that.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
It is obvious because I say that the present dispensation began at Acts 13.



Hi Jerry , and did the dispensation of Grace , begin with a MESSAGE OR did it begin with a person that was given the MYSTERY FIRST ??

You have said in thr past that that the Dispensation , began in Acts 7 ??

What changed your mind ?

dan p
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Hi Jerry , and did the dispensation of Grace , begin wit a MESSAGE OT did it begin with a person that was given the MYSTERY FIRST ??

Dan, a Biblical dispensation is a stewardship and that stewardship does not begin until the stewards began to act on their stewardship responsibility.

In the case of the present dispensation the stewardship responsibilty is to preach the gospel of grace.

And no one exercised that responsibilty until Paul began preaching that gospel at Acts 13.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Dan, a Biblical dispensation is a stewardship and that stewardship does not begin until the stewards began to act on their stewardship responsibility.

In the case of the present dispensation the stewardship responsibilty is to preach the gospel of grace.

And no one exercised that responsibilty until Paul began preaching that gospel at Acts 13.


HimJerry and the Greek word DISPENSATION / OIKONOMIA means HOUSE / OIKOS and NOMOS /LAW so it means

HOUSE / LAW or house / rules !!

The Greek word for STEWARD / IS OIKONOMOS and does not mean DISPENSATION , don't you see ??


The dispensation of Grace began with a person , PAUL and than given a new message , like Rom 1:1 !!

dan p
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
HimJerry and the Greek word DISPENSATION / OIKONOMIA means HOUSE / OIKOS and NOMOS /LAW so it means

HOUSE / LAW or house / rules !!

That is exactly what a stewardship is. The Greek word translated "dispensation" is also translated "stewardship" many times in the Scriptures.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
That is exactly what a stewardship is. The Greek word translated "dispensation" is also translated "stewardship" many times in the Scriptures.

Hi Jerry and I know you can look up both word in the Greek , so look and see why you are WRONG !!

Anyone that looks up the Greek word will EXPOSE YOUR INEXPERIENCE !!

dan p
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Hi Jerry and I know you can look up both word in the Greek , so look and see why you are WRONG !!

So the Greek word oikonomia is not translated as "stewardship" in the Bible?

Try Luke 16:2-4 because it is translated "stewardship" there. Besides that, both Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words and Thayer's Greek English Lexicon say that oikonomia means "stewardship."

Anyone that looks up the Greek word will EXPOSE YOUR INEXPERIENCE !!

I actually looked up the Greek word and saw that it means "stewardship." Did you not see that meaning for the word when you looked it up?
 

DAN P

Well-known member
So the Greek word oikonomia is not translated as "stewardship" in the Bible?

Try Luke 16:2-4 because it is translated "stewardship" there. Besides that, both Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words and Thayer's Greek English Lexicon say that oikonomia means "stewardship."



I actually looked up the Greek word and saw that it means "stewardship." Did you not see that meaning for the word when you looked it up?

Hi Jerry , and did you see that the CONTEXT of verse 4 it is talking about about OF MANAGEMENT or OVERSEER that when I am OUT OUT of the STEWARDSHIP is NOT talking about the DISPENSATION of the Grace of God !!

This why I do not trust the TRANSLATION of the KJV-ONLY theology !!

In verse 1 , STEWARD IS TRANSLATED by the Greek word OIKONOMOS and the Greek word for SHIP / IS PLOION and OIKOS still means HOSE and NOMOS still means LAW !!

Luke NEVER wrote about the Dispensation of the Grace of God , so do you have a verse where Luke did PREACH , Grace ??

If Luke did , preach Grace , than Gal 2:7 and 1 Cot 15:8 and Rom 1:1 are WRONG !!

dan p
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Luke NEVER wrote about the Dispensation of the Grace of God , so do you have a verse where Luke did PREACH , Grace ??

Nobody ever said that he did. The discussion is about the meaning of the Greek word translated "dispensation."

I said that it means "stewardship" and you said that it doesn't mean that.

I quoted Greek experts who said that it does mean that.

If you would have just checked out the experts then you wouldn't have made that mistake.
 

Danoh

New member
Dan, a Biblical dispensation is a stewardship and that stewardship does not begin until the stewards began to act on their stewardship responsibility.

In the case of the present dispensation the stewardship responsibilty is to preach the gospel of grace.

And no one exercised that responsibilty until Paul began preaching that gospel at Acts 13.

Nope.

For a comparison of Acts 9 with Acts 15 in light of Galatians 1, shows that Paul had won Gentiles to the gospel of the Grace of God prior to Acts 13.

Which, by the way, is why he even brings up to the Galatians the various details he brings up in Galatians 1 before he goes more into why he has written to them in the first place - because the Galatians had ended up in the very bondage that those Gentiles under his ministry prior to Acts 13, had had to deal with in Acts 14 and 15.

This is also why he ends the Epistle wishing peace upon both households: the Body of Christ and the Israel of God, that is the Church of God at Galatia.

Its called the Things That Differ, Jerry.

Its called actually consistent Acts 9 Dispensationalism.

Rom. 5: 6-8.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
For a comparison of Acts 9 with Acts 15 in light of Galatians 1, shows that Paul had won Gentiles to the gospel of the Grace of God prior to Acts 13.

I see no evidence of that.

If it is true quote the verses which you think proves it.
 

Danoh

New member
Hi and danoh , means Acts 15:3 , 12 , 14 , 19 says it !!

dan p

Yep.

And I have laid it all out a good four or five times or so, in the past four or five months.

Dig em up Jerry, you're good for that.

:chuckle:

Rom. 5:6-8.
 

DAN P

Well-known member
Yep.

And I have laid it all out a good four or five times or so, in the past four or five months.

Dig em up Jerry, you're good for that.

:chuckle:

Rom. 5:6-8.



Hi , danoh , it seems we finally AGREE , WOW !!

And Acts is the TOUGHEST book to understand and is why there is a BIG DIVIDE among believers !!

And are as blind as the Jews as they all have a STUPOR !!

dan p
 
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