Remembrance till Jesus Christ comes again?Why do you think that "Paul stresses it heavily"?
Remembrance till Jesus Christ comes again?Why do you think that "Paul stresses it heavily"?
I understand that concept.... I'd still like to know why you think that Paul "emphasized it heavily".Remembrance till Jesus Christ comes again?
Paul said to show how they ought to behave in the house of God, the church.I understand that concept.... I'd still like to know why you think that Paul "emphasized it heavily".
I understand that concept.... I'd still like to know why you think that Paul "emphasized it heavily".
Paul said to show how they ought to behave in the house of God, the church.
I get that. But I'm still asking the question about "emphasized it heavily".Paul said to show how they ought to behave in the house of God, the church.
Yes, that is exactly my point.Seems he barely mentioned it. Much like the women wear head coverings.
True, but the quantity of mentions does not automatically take away from it's importance or specialness.Seems he barely mentioned it. Much like the women wear head coverings.
So I used a poor word choice, let's just say he emphasized it.I get that. But I'm still asking the question about "emphasized it heavily".
To me a "heavy emphasis" would show this repeated many times in his epistles.
So I used a poor word choice, let's just say he emphasized it.
Luk 22:20 Likewise also the cup after supper, saying, This cup is the new testament in my blood, which is shed for you.
Luk 22:21 But, behold, the hand of him that betrayeth me is with me on the table.
Lk 22:21 is present tense and occurs after the sharing of the cup of the NT.
So, you would agree that it is illogical to imply that Christ was being symbolic, given that those who turned away thought He was being literal?"So, if Christ was being symbolic, why did He allow the followers who turned from Him to leave? After all, they simply said "How can He give us His flesh to eat?" Instead of correcting them, Christ repeats that we must eat His flesh and drink His blood. The verse (63) is also a clear change of subject.
I see no "clear change of subject" in verse 63.
If we take your inference, applying it extensively to Christ, if "the flesh profits nothing," then what good is the crucifixion? A sacrifice of flesh would profit nothing, right? The issue with the inference that you provide doesn't make sense when paralleled with the Last Supper, either.
I disagree.
I think that your question is illogical.So, you would agree that it is illogical to imply that Christ was being symbolic, given that those who turned away thought He was being literal?
Verse 62 says nothing of His resurrection, it's talking about His ASCENSION.In verse 61, Christ asks the crowd why they take offense to His words (eat my flesh). Then, in verse 62, He foretells the Resurrection.
Jesus said that HIS WORDS are spirit and are life.In verse 63, Christ says "It is the spirit that gives life, the flesh is of no avail; the words that i have spoken to you are spirit and life." (Emphasis my own). Here we see Christ saying that we cannot accept this (Eucharistic) mystery if we think of it in too human of a nature.
No.So, by using the phrase "clear change of subject," was inaccurate. I apologize for that. My intent was to point to Christ's words pointing toward divine revelation vs human limits, rather than a "change of subject" from the Eucharist. My bad.
But do you see how when Christ is talking about His words being "spirit and life," He is not saying that His Flesh and Blood is symbolic?
Eating and drinking Christ are symbolic.Here, you are disagreeing, because I am extending your symbolism extensively, correct? But why not? You wish to use the passage beginning in 6:48 to be symbolic, why not apply that same logic to the rest of Christ's words and teachings?
You could argue that "context matters." And I agree. Which is why the context of 6:48-66 is meant literal and not symbolic. The disciples who left spoke of their issue with the literal nature of Christ's words. Yet, Christ never corrected them, rather repeated His phrasing the same way; four times, with an affirmation following the third time (Even affirming the literal nature by saying that His flesh is true food and His blood is true drink).
If you are going to maintain your disagreement, at least posit logic and Scripture in support of your claim.
True, but the quantity of mentions does not automatically take away from it's importance or specialness.
Should the BOC be treating it as something very special that we should hold up as something that should be done until the Lord returns?
I could be wrong, but I think PJ is asking if the BOC today has gotten to a point that we place too little emphasis on it.
There's a decent treatment of the Eucharist in there too.How Things Got Off Track
The Lutheran reformers declared, “the Mass is retained among us, and celebrated with the highest reverence.” They repeatedly affirmed their desire to continue the catholic traditions of worship, minus elements they believed corrupted it. Other Reformation churches followed suit to varying degrees. But several decades ago, it became fashionable in Protestant churches to gut the liturgy or dump it altogether.
Then, what is the logical alternative to my question?I think that your question is illogical.
Not if He is speaking literally. Just saying He is being symbolic does not make it so. Prove your position, logically.No, Jesus was NOT asking them to LITERALLY eat His flesh as in one human consuming another.
John 6:33 (AKJV/PCE)(6:33) For the bread of God is he which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world.
Clearly symbolic from the start.
Is Christ the living Word?Jesus said that HIS WORDS are spirit and are life.
How is it symbolic? Christ is talking about literal wine, right? Not symbolic wine.Take note of this passage that parallels the concepts in John 6:
Matt 26:26-29 (AKJV/PCE)(26:26) ¶ And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed [it], and brake [it], and gave [it] to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. (26:27) And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave [it] to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; (26:28) For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. (26:29) But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom.
Notice the symbolic nature of the wine that remains wine.
So, a couple questions then.Eating and drinking Christ are symbolic.
He said WORDS and not WORD.Is Christ the living Word?
I'm amazed by your denseness.How is it symbolic? Christ is talking about literal wine, right? Not symbolic wine.
He said WORDS and not WORD.
John 6:63 (AKJV/PCE)(6:63) It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, [they] are spirit, and [they] are life.
I'm amazed by your denseness.
Matt 26:26-29 (AKJV/PCE)(26:26) ¶ And as they were eating, Jesus took bread, and blessed [it], and brake [it], and gave [it] to the disciples, and said, Take, eat; this is my body. (26:27) And he took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave [it] to them, saying, Drink ye all of it; (26:28) For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. (26:29) But I say unto you, I will not drink henceforth of this fruit of the vine, until that day when I drink it new with you in my Father's kingdom.
The WINE is SYMBOLIC of the BLOOD.