Interplanner
Well-known member
You'll have to wait and ask the Lord 'why', later.
Depends on how one defines 'Judaism'.
Some say that 'Biblical Judaism' is a Jewish understanding in harmony with Moses and the Prophets, which is Scripture.
This is in contrast with 'Rabbinic Judaism' which is not always in harmony with Scripture.
From this understanding, Phillip was teaching 'Biblical Judaism' which is Scripture and is the truth of Is 53.
No, it's to make sure he didn't have Judaism's understanding which was that it was about their suffering in Babylon, which is the #1 reason why they thought the restoration was to be literal, Jn 12:34. Suffering does that; it makes it hard to see what Christ's plans really are. This is why it is sad that Jer 29:29 is taken so hyper-personally today. it's really about Christ Our Righteousness coming and being the kingdom for Israel, as Hebrews is trying say when the dingles here at TOL are quiet and read other passages than 8:8.
You need to update your understanding of what Judaism was like. there was the upper class, formal kind in Jerusalem. and the zealot type in Galilee, mostly, both of which believed in a vision of Israel not being under Rome. Some of them and some Essenes, believed the temple itself to be defiled already, not just by Romans, but by the upper classes. But the upper classes believed 'redemption' (freedom from Rome) would take place painlessly, miraculously. The zealots believed they had to fight it out like Joshua, and they would be met/assisted with God's help.