Jesus' first language was Aramaic. When his apostolic followers began to record his words and deeds some decades after Christ's ascension, however, they did so primarily in Koine Greek. This is a simple fact of which even beginning Bible students are fully aware.
Of course, given that Christianity began as a movement within Judaism. This is no great news.And his ministry was primarily to the Jews...
Umm...So what?There are isolated instances where Aramaic would have been appropriate (like the woman at the well).. but they were few and far between. These are the facts.
Jesus' first language was Aramaic. When his apostolic followers began to record his words and deeds some decades after Christ's ascension, however, they did so primarily in Koine Greek. This is a simple fact of which even beginning Bible students are fully aware.
Jesus could speak Hebrew, and probably Greek, but his first and primary language was Aramaic. You've already been answered on this point.He had to speak Hebrew to fulfill the prophesies about him and to be a good Jew.
Jesus could speak Hebrew, and probably Greek, but his first and primary language was Aramaic. You've already been answered on this point.
No, Jesus primarily spoke Hebrew, as has been proven by modern scholars.Jesus could speak Hebrew, and probably Greek, but his first and primary language was Aramaic.
You have no idea what you're talking about. The only NT document that the early Fathers say was originally written in Hebrew is the gospel of Matthew. That's it. Please adequately educate yourself before presuming to post on a public forum.No, his primary language was Hebrew... as were most of the commentaries by early church fathers... some of whom admit that the original writings of the New Testament were in Hebrew.
FTFY and you are welcome.I have no idea what I'm talking about.
You have no idea what you're talking about. The only NT document that the early Fathers say was originally written in Hebrew is the gospel of Matthew. That's it. Please adequately educate yourself before presuming to post on a public forum.
You've already been answered on the rest of your post.
Your claim about the testimony of the early Church Fathers was erroneous. My statement stands exactly as posted.You apparently have no idea about the state of current scholarship. It has been widely proven that the sentence structure and form of the Greek New Testament writings are in fact HEBREW in origin which proves the Greek was translated from Hebrew.
Then take me off of ignore and read THIS"This message is hidden because genuineoriginal is on your ignore list."
Your claim about the testimony of the early Church Fathers was erroneous. My statement stands exactly as posted.
Educate yourself.
Already answered (Post #29).It's not erroneous at all...
CHURCH
Ekklesia (Greek): refers to an "assembly" or "congregation" of people. The words is used 23 times in Acts and 91 times in the rest of the New Testament.
The term was broadly applied in Greek literature to several types of social or political gatherings, but more narrowly applied in the Greek Old Testament to the worshiping assembly of Israel (Deut. 9:10; Josh. 8:35; 1 Kings 8:65). With the exception of Acts 19:32, this latter usage is closest to the New Testament meaning of the word.
Jesus was the first to use a Semitic equivalent of this term for the covenant community he founded and entrusted to the apostles (Mt. 16:18; 18:17). Thereafter it became the normal designation for local Churches (Rom. 16:16; 1 Cor. 1:2) and for the collective body of local communities that make up the universal Church (Acts 9:31; Eph. 3:10; 5:23).
This worldwide congregation is governed by an apostolic hierarchy (1 Cor. 12:28) and is one with the assembly of angels and saints in the heavenly Jerusalem (Heb. 12:22-23).*
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*IGNATIUS CATHOLIC STUDY BIBLE: NEW TESTAMENT, 2nd Catholic Edition (Ignatius Press, 2010), p. 215.