ECT So How Does the Christian Teaching Differ With Judaism about the Land?

I

Interplanner

Well-known member
No wonder you call the transition from old to new Satanic,
or from shadow to reality Satanic
or from childtrainer to maturity Satanic, etc., etc.


Disorder is when you ignore a 2nd destruction of Jerusalme that 'all the wrath that was written by the prophets' in place of a restored land that makes the gospel look backwards.

Your god seems to be locked in to and organized by the OT law, which Paul called the 'weak and miserable elements of the world.'

Your scheme deletes Eph 1:21's line that the enthronement of Christ now is above every authority, power, dominion and title that can be given, NOT ONLY IN THE PRESENT AGE, but also in the one to come. You delete the line in caps.


OP: how does Christian teaching differ with Judaism about the land promise, since there is obvious conflict in most other areas?
 
SaulToPaul 2

SaulToPaul 2

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
No wonder you call the transition from old to new Satanic,
or from shadow to reality Satanic
or from childtrainer to maturity Satanic, etc., etc.


Disorder is when you ignore a 2nd destruction of Jerusalme that 'all the wrath that was written by the prophets' in place of a restored land that makes the gospel look backwards.

Your god seems to be locked in to and organized by the OT law, which Paul called the 'weak and miserable elements of the world.'

Your scheme deletes Eph 1:21's line that the enthronement of Christ now is above every authority, power, dominion and title that can be given, NOT ONLY IN THE PRESENT AGE, but also in the one to come. You delete the line in caps.


OP: how does Christian teaching differ with Judaism about the land promise, since there is obvious conflict in most other areas?
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Why would God set up spring and fall feasts (which was for our learning), and then fulfill them out of order? You have no acceptable answer.
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
musterion said:
No it wasn't.
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that's what Luke 21 is about, and describes in detail. To lock it in to time, we see in 23:34 that the babes on the day of the crucifixion would be adults when it would happen.

Luke transcribed Paul's teaching for most of Luke-Acts and Paul shows no sign of a distant return of Christ. He really talked like it would happen right after the DofJ and keeps talking that way when on very remote topics such as whether to marry in I Cor 7. He does not think there will be a delay. It even starts a misunderstanding in Thess (2 Th 2:2).
 
Jerry Shugart

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Interplanner said:
OP: how does Christian teaching differ with Judaism about the land promise, since there is obvious conflict in most other areas?
Click to expand...

Those in the dispensationalism community insist that the prophecies about the land found in the OT mean the same thing that it meant to those who first received those prophecies--the Jews. For instance, when they read these prophecies they understood that the LORD was speaking specifically about the physical descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob:

"Behold, I will take the children of Israel from among the heathen, whither they be gone, and will gather them on every side, and bring them into their own land...And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob my servant, wherein your fathers have...Moreover I will make a covenant of peace with them; it shall be an everlasting covenant with them: and I will place them, and multiply them, and will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for evermore. My tabernacle also shall be with them: yea, I will be their God, and they shall be my people" (Ez.37:25-27).​

Those who first received this prophecy were the Jews. If the words "the children of Israel" in this passage mean anything other that the physical descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob then the LORD was deceiving the Jews. And He would never do that.
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
Jerry Shugart said:
Those in the dispensationalism community insist that the prophecies about the land found in the OT mean the same thing that it meant to those who first received those prophecies--the Jews. For instance, when they read these prophecies they understood that the LORD was speaking specifically about the physical descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob:

"Behold, I will take the children of Israel from among the heathen, whither they be gone, and will gather them on every side, and bring them into their own land...And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob my servant, wherein your fathers have...Moreover I will make a covenant of peace with them; it shall be an everlasting covenant with them: and I will place them, and multiply them, and will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for evermore. My tabernacle also shall be with them: yea, I will be their God, and they shall be my people" (Ez.37:25-27).​

Those who first received this prophecy were the Jews. If the words "the children of Israel" in this passage mean anything other that the physical descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob then the LORD was deceiving the Jews. And He would never do that.
Click to expand...


Romans 9:24 and 15's 4 quotes and Gal 6's Israel of God.
 
I

Interplanner

Well-known member
Jerry Shugart said:
Those in the dispensationalism community insist that the prophecies about the land found in the OT mean the same thing that it meant to those who first received those prophecies--the Jews. For instance, when they read these prophecies they understood that the LORD was speaking specifically about the physical descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob:

"Behold, I will take the children of Israel from among the heathen, whither they be gone, and will gather them on every side, and bring them into their own land...And they shall dwell in the land that I have given unto Jacob my servant, wherein your fathers have...Moreover I will make a covenant of peace with them; it shall be an everlasting covenant with them: and I will place them, and multiply them, and will set my sanctuary in the midst of them for evermore. My tabernacle also shall be with them: yea, I will be their God, and they shall be my people" (Ez.37:25-27).​

Those who first received this prophecy were the Jews. If the words "the children of Israel" in this passage mean anything other that the physical descendants of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob then the LORD was deceiving the Jews. And He would never do that.
Click to expand...



Then you just eliminated the conflict. The conflict that happens in the NT would not have happened because the apostles would have told them about it. they never do.
 
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