Shalom. There is one God, Yahveh.

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again jamie,
What Hebrew name of God did Jesus use?
When Jesus read from the Isaiah scroll he would have read the Hebrew Name for God, Yahweh in whatever form or pronunciation that was common in his day. He read from Isaiah 61:1-2 and this is recorded in the following:
Luke 4:16-19 (KJV): 16 And he came to Nazareth, where he had been brought up: and, as his custom was, he went into the synagogue on the sabbath day, and stood up for to read. 17 And there was delivered unto him the book of the prophet Esaias. And when he had opened the book, he found the place where it was written, 18 The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised, 19 To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.

But as I said before, in the NT the emphasis is not on the Hebrew Name of God, but the relationship between Jesus and God, and hence we see God the Father revealed, and we see Jesus the Son of God. Jesus taught the disciples to pray “Our Father”, and on one occasion when he alluded to and quoted Psalm 8, he did not use “Yahweh”, but used “Father”. The following is Jesus’ succinct and beautiful summary of Psalm 8:1-3:
Matthew 11:25 (KJV): At that time Jesus answered and said, I thank thee, O Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because thou hast hid these things from the wise and prudent, and hast revealed them unto babes.
Psalm 8:1-3 (KJV) 1 O LORD our Lord, how excellent is thy name in all the earth! who hast set thy glory above the heavens. 2 Out of the mouth of babes and sucklings hast thou ordained strength because of thine enemies, that thou mightest still the enemy and the avenger. 3 When I consider thy heavens, the work of thy fingers, the moon and the stars, which thou hast ordained;


With the failure of the Jews, and the Gospel now going out to the Gentiles, the word “Father” is used, and in all the different countries where the Gospel would reach this word is readily translatable, not needing to understand the Hebrew “Yahweh”. When considered properly “Father” is similar in concept to Yahweh which means “He will be or become”, He will bring to the birth not just the nation of Israel under Moses, but he will have sons and daughters, who start off as babes and sucklings in faith and trust and praise, through the Firstborn of his New Creation, the Son of God, the Lord Jesus Christ.

In the near future when Christ returns and a significant remnant of natural Israel is converted then the concept that they and also the surrounding nations will know that God is Yahweh will again be understood, as witnessed by many OT prophecies.

Kind regards
Trevor
 

jamie

New member
LIFETIME MEMBER
When Jesus read from the Isaiah scroll he would have read the Hebrew Name for God

Is it possible Jesus knew the correct pronunciation for the Hebrew version of the person he referred to as our Father?

Is it possible Jesus knew our Father was not Hebrew and that our Father did not descend from Abraham?

Paul asked, "Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles?" (Romans 3:29)

Is it possible Paul knew our Father was not from Abraham and must be referred to by a Hebrew name?

Is it possible the Sacred Names theory is just a diversion, a trick of the Adversary, haSatan?
 

TrevorL

Well-known member
Greetings again jamie,
Is it possible Jesus knew the correct pronunciation for the Hebrew version of the person he referred to as our Father?
Yes, and I suggest that at that time the Name was well known and generally used, especially when reading from the Hebrew scrolls.
Is it possible Jesus knew our Father was not Hebrew and that our Father did not descend from Abraham?
I consider this as a nonsense question. God chose to reveal His Name in Hebrew.
Paul asked, "Or is He the God of the Jews only? Is He not also the God of the Gentiles?" (Romans 3:29)
The OT Scriptures were first written in Hebrew because of God’s principal dealing with Israel. When the time came for the gospel to be spread more fully to the Gentiles after the resurrection the NT Scriptures were written in Greek and translated into other languages and to prepare for this Jesus revealed God as His Father and asked us to pray “Our Father”.
Is it possible Paul knew our Father was not from Abraham and must be referred to by a Hebrew name?
Again I consider this as a nonsense question. It is acceptable to refer to God as Yahweh, and it is acceptable to read YHVH as Yahweh when reading say Isaiah 50.
Is it possible the Sacred Names theory is just a diversion, a trick of the Adversary, haSatan?
I am not sure of what you are referring to, but again I consider that this as a nonsense suggestion. There is no diversion if we seek to understand God's revelation of His Name.

In conclusion, because of this discussion I decided to reread Rotherham’s introduction, and made a summary of this to help fix the ideas he suggested, and I recommend reading this introduction. Also when I had a closer look at the Hebrew of the 5 occurrences of Yahweh in Isaiah 50, the first and the last has different vowel points to that of the second, third and fourth. This confirms that the Massorites added these vowel points from Adonai and Elohim to prompt the reader to not pronounce the Name, but to substitute these titles when reading. This also disproves the suggestion that Jehovah is the correct spelling and pronunciation as this spelling only agrees with the first and last occurrence of YHVH in Isaiah 50.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
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