The only way putting someone to death could possibly not be a question of right or wrong but rather based on bias or agenda is if the government executing the criminal is an immoral government.
You first asked "What if you and a fellow believer "feel led" by God on this issue but come to different conclusions?". Now you're talking about a government.
Then why did Paul speak of using the law in a present tense verb in First Timothy 1:9,10? - "Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, for whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine"
Already addressed. Starting
here
Do you really think a government can enforce one set of laws on non-believers and another for Christians?
Not to mention...Paul was a Jew!
Your quote proved nothing.
They were verses
you chose to somehow justify shadowgov. Your chosen verses proved nothing.
The principle still stands: God thinks it profanes Him when governing authorities keep people alive who should not live. The passage only mentions false prophets and idoloters because that is the context of the chapter.
Jefferson; you are plainly taking verses out of context and squeezing them so they fit into your ideology. Not to mention Ezekiel 13 is during the Mosaic Covenant. What's the status of that covenant?:think:
Do you really think that Leviticus 20:10 + Ezekiel 13:19 = God is profaned if adulterers are not put to death?
You're making unsound interpretations by taking verses out of context so you can make them fit your political ideology.
Do you actually believe God is not also offended when other types of criminals He commanded be put to death were not? Did you really expect God to inspire the author to mention every single act that requires the death penalty in this passage, even though those other acts are not germaine to the topic in the chapter? You're kidding, right?
Jefferson; if you take the verses
in context Ezekiel
does mention the acts in question. You just have to read more than Ezekiel 13 to find out what they are.
Ezekiel 12:19 - Obviously there were injustices in Israel due to
violence which were going unpunished. For example, if someone were murdered and the murderer went unpunished; then Ezekiel 13:19 starts to make a bit more sense. You can't just make wild generalizations by taking a single verse out of context.
Does the passage say God is not profaned when adulterers are kept alive?
You cannot be serious.
We've been over this. The burden of proof in on you, and Bob, and anyone else who thinks shadowgov is Christian. The proof just isn't there. If you were not blinded by your ideology; you'd see this plain as day.
I did include some at the end of the post if you really want to open your heart to what they say and mean.
I asked: "Was God smart and moral for instituting the death penalty for adultery in the Old Testament? If you answer yes to that question, please explain what you think was so smart and moral about it back then."
He was preserving a holy bloodline for the messiah and their salvation depended on strict adherence to the law. It was part of the old covenant with the
Israelite's.
That didn't answer my question. Let me rephrase it: Why did God command the death penalty for adultery instead of a fine, for example? What was so moral about the death penalty instead of any other punishment?
You really want me to speak for God?
Jefferson; you are a Christian. You know that Christians are not bound to the law. The Israelites
were. That is scripture. Part of the reason Christ sacrificed himself was to remove the curse of the law by taking upon the curse as the perfect sacrifice.
There is no differentiation made between criminal law in the covenant and the law for salvation.
You seem to think that 1 Timothy 1 is your best evidence. What is Paul saying here? Again,
in context. Let's move right past the section you keep quoting.
1 Timothy 1:12-16
I thank Christ Jesus our Lord, who has given me strength, that he considered me faithful, appointing me to his service. Even though I was once a blasphemer and a persecutor and a violent man, I was shown mercy because I acted in ignorance and unbelief. The grace of our Lord was poured out on me abundantly, along with the faith and love that are in Christ Jesus.
Here is a trustworthy saying that deserves full acceptance: Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners—of whom I am the worst. But for that very reason I was shown mercy so that in me, the worst of sinners, Christ Jesus might display his unlimited patience as an example for those who would believe on him and receive eternal life.
Even Paul is condemned under the law and he is openly admitting so.
If you do not have faith in Christ (the new doctrine at this point) you are under the curse of the law. Again, are you going to implement on set of laws for Christians and another for non-Christians?
Christians who know the status of the law will never accept this false doctrine of legalism.
The only purpose of the law is the definition of sin. The law exists now for one reason; so that men can be conscious of sin. It is not there for any other reason. Not for a criminal code, not for salvation.
Romans 3:20
If mosaic law is part of the old covenant and that covenant is
no more, where does that leave you? You cannot just assume that the criminal portion is still binding when there is no scripture to back you up. To use the logic of men in an attempt to reinstate Israelite law on gentiles is partially undermining what Christ died for. The ethics and morals did not change. Adultery and homosexuality are, and always will be
sins. The law, although no longer binding, is there so sinners can become conscious of sin, so that they may repent and "sin no more".
There is no Christian justification for shadowgov.
The fact that 1 Timothy 1 is all the evidence you have should make you take pause and reconsider your stance. It is hardly compelling evidence for advocating the execution of Christians under Torah Law.
You can twist scripture and take verses out of context; but you must realize the fact that Christianity does not embrace reconstructionalism for a reason.
That reason being; there is no Christian justification for reconstructinalism.
Please address
Galatians 3 -
Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law.
Galatians 4:21-31 - do you want to create a nation of slaves?
Ephesians 2:11-22 -
by abolishing in his flesh the law with its commandments and regulations.
Titus 3:9 -
But avoid foolish controversies and genealogies and arguments and quarrels about the law, because these are unprofitable and useless.
Hebrews 7 -
For when there is a change of the priesthood, there must also be a change of the law.
1 John 3 -
Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness.
Are you sure there is nothing you, yourself could be executed for?
Leviticus 20:10 + Matthew 5:32 = Bob himself gets executed if we are to follow this warped logic, legalism and hypocrisy.
Would I be wrong to make such an interpretation? Why or why not? It's not being retroactive since someone who is remarried commits adultery
every time they have sexual relations with their second/third spouse. Does he not
live as an adulterer yet can be saved because of faith and not by following the law?
Why shouldn't he be the first executed in the first five days under the shadowgov constitution?:think:
I really have no interest in people's private lives, but the point must be made. I do not think Bob should be executed
because we are no longer under the curse of the law!
I am not trying to be rude to your mentor; but the obvious hypocrisy is staggering.
I can respect many aspects of his other efforts, but he (and you) are absolutely wrong about this.