Paul's Struggle With Sin

[glorydaz]

Romans. 7 describes Paul's struggle before Christ delivered him from that wretched state. Paul the Possul claimed that no sin had dominion over him.

Yep, that "wretched" state that requires one be "delivered from the law." Which is why he goes to such lengths in the beginning of the chapter comparing a woman held by the law until her husband dies.

Romans 7:5-6
5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death. 6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.​

 

[glorydaz]

It did under "the Law for righteousness," Luke 1: 5-6; Rom. 9:31; Rom. 10:5, etc.

Being blameless under the law was a very low standard (being outward obedience), and the sacrifices were there to take up the slack.

 

[Danoh]

What about the explanation for Romans 9:31 which is given by Paul himself in Romans 9:32? Rom 9:32 does not render the law inoperable but rather strongly implies that the law should have been observed being mixed with faithfulness. This is a huge difference from what you have implied by quoting Rom 9:31 separate from its surrounding context.

The point was the hope that people might do what you did - look it up.

And works themselves were not the issue.

 

[daqq]

Yep, that "wretched" state that requires one be "delivered from the law." Which is why he goes to such lengths in the beginning of the chapter comparing a woman held by the law until her husband dies.

Romans 7:5-6
5 For when we were in the flesh, the motions of sins, which were by the law, did work in our members to bring forth fruit unto death. 6 But now we are delivered from the law, that being dead wherein we were held; that we should serve in newness of spirit, and not in the oldness of the letter.​

In the same passage Paul says the Law is spiritual, (Romans 7:14) and by the end of the passage Paul is proclaiming that with the mind he serves Torah of Elohim, which is Horeb, but with the flesh Torah of sin, which is Sinai, (Romans 7:25 KJV). Thus herein this passage, which the OP has quoted from the start, Paul neither renders the Torah obsolete nor inoperable but rather quite explicitly lays out the proper usages of both Torah of Horeb, (the mountain of Elohim which is of above) and Torah of sin and death, (mount Sinai which is of below) which is used against oneself to put to death the "unruly members" of ones own household, (every man is a house with its "members").

 

[Danoh]

Being blameless under the law was a very low standard (being outward obedience), and the sacrifices were there to take up the slack.

Not according to that Luke 1:6 passage and in light of what was later revealed through Paul's " the remission of sins that are past, through the forebearance of God," Rom. 3:21.

 

[jamie]

The law of liberty is to be free from the law.

But he who looks into the perfect law of liberty and continues in it, and is not a forgetful hearer but a doer of the work, this one will be blessed in what he does. (James 1:25 NKJV)​

How can a person continue in a perfect law if the law doesn't exist?

 

[glorydaz]

Not according to that Luke 1:6 passage and in light of what was later revealed through Paul's " the remission of sins that are past, through the forebearance of God," Rom. 3:21.

Actually, that scripture proves what I said. It's was the forbearance of God...he allowed it to be considered as righteous. We see the same here.

Acts 17:30
And the times of this ignorance God winked at; but now commandeth all men every where to repent:​

 

[glorydaz]

In the same passage Paul says the Law is spiritual, (Romans 7:14) and by the end of the passage Paul is proclaiming that with the mind he serves Torah of Elohim, which is Horeb, but with the flesh Torah of sin, which is Sinai, (Romans 7:25 KJV). Thus herein this passage, which the OP has quoted from the start, Paul neither renders the Torah obsolete nor inoperable but rather quite explicitly lays out the proper usages of both Torah of Horeb, (the mountain of Elohim which is of above) and Torah of sin and death, (mount Sinai which is of below) which is used against oneself to put to death the "unruly members" of ones own household, (every man is a house with its "members").

What Paul is making clear is the purpose of the Law. It was never intended to justify man, make men holy, or give life. Paul was speaking of it's drawbacks when men try to use the law in ways it was never intended to be used.

 

[patrick jane]

But he who looks into the perfect law of liberty and continues in it, and is not a forgetful hearer but a doer of the work, this one will be blessed in what he does. (James 1:25 NKJV)​

How can a person continue in a perfect law if the law doesn't exist?

They can't - James 2:10 KJV -

 

[patrick jane]

What about the explanation for Romans 9:31 which is given by Paul himself in Romans 9:32? Rom 9:32 does not render the law inoperable but rather strongly implies that the law should have been observed being mixed with faithfulness. This is a huge difference from what you have implied by quoting Rom 9:31 separate from its surrounding context.

He doesn't care, Dane O just posts scripture all willy nilly

 

[glorydaz]

How can a person continue in a perfect law if the law doesn't exist?

They can't - James 2:10 KJV -

He doesn't care, Dane O just posts scripture all willy nilly

Your scripture looks all willy nilly as well as silly to me. :think: