ECT Our triune God

Arsenios

Well-known member
So this is nothing?:

"What and if ye shall see the Son of Man ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).​

Before He was born of Mary He was in heaven as the Son of Man. And here we read practically the same thing:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of Man Who is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

What do you think the words "Son of Man" means in these two verses?

"Son of Man" means Jesus incarnate...
The God-man...
WHO came down from heaven..
And WHO became man...
And while BEING man on earth,
WHO is still in heaven...

Son of Man refers to the WHO that Jesus simultaneously IS in Heaven and upon the earth...

It does not refer to the WHAT Jesus IS as man or as God...

It is simply telling you that the WHO is BOTH God and man...

iow It is NOT saying that the Son of Man is existing in heaven...

But the Person WHO Jesus, the Son of Man IS, is existing there...

Arsenios
 
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Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
The title, "Son of Man" doesn't refer to the humanity of Christ per se. When it is used in connection with His humanity it is for the purpose of ascribing its origin to the "supernatural paternity of God."

Which verses do we read where the term "Son of Man" refer to the "supernatural paternity of God"?

Now let us look at this verse:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

According to your ideas the Lord Jesus did change so he was not the same yesterday, and today, and for ever.

According to you the Lord Jesus originally had only one nature and then he was changed when He acquired another nature.

That idea is directly contradicted by what is said at Hebrews 13:8.
 

1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
The words of the Lord Jesus spoken to Nicodemus end at John 3:12. Then what follows are the words of the Apostle John.

Or else we must believe that the Lord was speaking to Nicodemus on the earth and telling him that at that very moment He was in heaven.


Yer outta yer mind.

When Jesus not John said we tell you what we have seen, he was talkin' about himself and the Holy Spirit.

I said let it sink into yer ears.

Why you think I underlined this?


12 If I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe , if I tell you of heavenly things?


So was Peter wrong when he called the Lord Jesus a man?

"Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know" (Jn.2:22).​

Was Paul wrong when he referred to the Lord Jesus as being a man in both these verses?:

"Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead" (Acts 17:31).​

"For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus" (1 Tim.2:5).​

Had a flesh and blood body didn't he?

Why would Peter or Paul be wrong?
 
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1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
When did the incarnate Jesus Christ come down from heaven?

Good question.

I would say right after he emptied himself.

Which raises a question in my mind.

Where did he empty himself to?

I see 2 possible answers.

Back into the Father or into the Holy Spirit?

I lean towards the latter.:think:



Luke 1:35 KJV


35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.
 

Arsenios

Well-known member
When did the incarnate Jesus Christ come down from heaven?

He didn't...

But He will...

The Person WHO IS the Son of God came down from heaven...

And incarnated into Human flesh and blood without change...

The Person Who God IS did not change...

Human Nature changed IN that Person...

Arsenios
 

Ask Mr. Religion

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That idea is directly contradicted by what is said at Hebrews 13:8.
I actually responded to your use of Hebrews 13:8 to support your view that our Lord existed as a man in heaven before being born of the virgin Mary here:

http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?p=4353361#post4353361

Given your view, do you think that when Jesus walked the earth, the Second Person of the Trinity was no longer omnipresent, but confined to only the places Jesus was at the time?

AMR
 

1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
Human Nature changed IN that Person...

Arsenios

Human nature, blah blah blah.


Romans 8:3 KJV


3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:
 

Danoh

New member
"I, I, I thought you meant..."

"I, I, I thought you meant..."

I actually responded to your use of Hebrews 13:8 to support your view that our Lord existed as a man in heaven before being born of the virgin Mary here:

http://www.theologyonline.com/forums/showthread.php?p=4353361#post4353361

Given your view, do you think that when Jesus walked the earth, the Second Person of the Trinity was no longer omnipresent, but confined to only the places Jesus was at the time?

AMR

What I perceive is yours as being as much your own system's manner of reasoning through a thing, as his is, his.

What Hebrews 13:8 is talking about is; simply, the same sense as this here in Malachi 3 - The Lord's character:

6. For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.

Throughout the OT, that is often the sense of those five words "For I am the LORD."

Romans 3:3 carries this same sense, not surprisingly, given it's speaking of Malachi's and Hebrews' same promise.

Romans 3:

1. What advantage then hath the Jew? Or what profit is there of circumcision?
2. Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
3. For what if some did not believe? Shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect?
4. God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged.

Hebrews 13:

7. Remember them which have the rule over you, who have spoken unto you the word of God: whose faith follow, considering the end of their conversation.
8. Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever.

In other word; consider the end of that which you were called unto. For the fact is it was written - that the Son is faithful - always was, always is, and always will be - He will be coming back!

Romans 15 shows that in both the Father and the Son:

8. Now I say that Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision for the truth of God, to confirm the promises made unto the fathers:
9. And that the Gentiles might glorify God for his mercy; as it is written, For this cause I will confess to thee among the Gentiles, and sing unto thy name.

Hebrews 7's:

21. [For those priests were made without an oath; but this with an oath by him that said unto him, The Lord sware and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec:]

That is Hebrews overall narrative - in their continuation of those just as sure as that equally "more word of prophecy" as to that also - these equally more sure words, here, in Romans 11:

25. For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.
26. And so all Israel shall be saved: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:
27. For this is my covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.
28. As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the father’s sakes.
29. For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.

This truth, lost way before the time of the Reformers, they continued in the reasoning that is their own system's "wisdom."

Where one applies reasoning to a thing through one's own system, in contrast to doing so from said thing's own, after having first, attempted to identify what that thing's own system is...
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Had a flesh and blood body didn't he?

Why would Peter or Paul be wrong?

According to you the Lord Jesus only had one nature:

He's never had two natures.

And I quoted these verses to you to demonstrate that He was not only God but also Man:

So was Peter wrong when he called the Lord Jesus a man?

"Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know" (Jn.2:22).​

Was Paul wrong when he referred to the Lord Jesus as being a man in both these verses?:

"Because he hath appointed a day, in the which he will judge the world in righteousness by that man whom he hath ordained; whereof he hath given assurance unto all men, in that he hath raised him from the dead" (Acts 17:31).​

"For there is one God and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus" (1 Tim.2:5).​

So you will now admit that the Lord Jesus has two natures, that of being Man and that of being God?
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
I actually responded to your use of Hebrews 13:8 to support your view that our Lord existed as a man in heaven before being born of the virgin Mary here:

Here is what you said:

The passage is Hebrews 13:8 is not teaching anything related to the ontological nature of our Lord. Instead, the references to former "leaders" who had preached the word of God to the community (Hebrews 13:7), and the present leaders whose authority is to be respected (Hebrews 13:17), are complementary. Hebrews 13:7-9 hang together conceptually: the word of God proclaimed previously (in Hebrews 13:7) is crystallized in the confessional formulation of 13:8.

Nothing you said there makes any sense. And you failed to respond to what the author of Hebrews quoted from the OT about the Lord Jesus earlier in that book:

"And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands: They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment; And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail" (Heb.1:10-12).​

Given your view, do you think that when Jesus walked the earth, the Second Person of the Trinity was no longer omnipresent, but confined to only the places Jesus was at the time?

He made Himself a little lower than the angels. Do you think that angels are omnipresent? We also know that while the Lord walked the earth He no longer possessed the quality of being omniscient (Mt.24:36).
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
What Hebrews 13:8 is talking about is; simply, the same sense as this here in Malachi 3 - The Lord's character:

6. For I am the LORD, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.

Here is what the author of Hebrews quoted from the OT and it is obvious that it is not just the Lord's character which is in view:

"And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands: They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment; And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail" (Heb.1:10-12).​
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Alas! You're now a Yank :D

Think more androgenous. No drawl at all.:dizzy:

And that's fine by me. No Christian has to articulate the "how" to be a Christian.

I'm not referring to a salvific threshold relative to theological knowledge. I'm referring to the results of faulty theology in hearts and minds and lives.

And incompleteness or error CAN be salvific. There IS a salvific threshold somehow related to whatever is believed.

Well again, I don't know anyone who holds that view--it sounds like the very simple conception of a child who wouldn't be engaging in metaphysical analysis (which, again, is a very simple faith and fine with me (and Jesus).

I'm surprised you haven't encountered this epidemic pervasive unaddressed presumption. It's mostly just never a subject.

I mean "we'll get there" in the sense of analysis once the foundational concepts are analyzed and understood.

Fair enough.

But, PPS, there is a degree of mystery (Eph 5)--like in a married man and woman being one flesh and Christ and His church being one.

Musterion is being behind the veil. Mystery revealed. I agree it's a great revealed mystery. I cannot agree that it isn't revealed. God, by His Logos, didn't stutter when He spoke forth the Logos as Ho Huios, the eternal uncreated Son.

I agree that few have ever understood the ontological Gospel, Anthropology Proper, and Theology Proper. And that's partly because the Classic Trinity doctrine has gotten in the way as mandatory indoctrination, including among Protestants.

Some of the edges will remain quite fuzzy... If Paul couldn't articulate exactly how these two things could be one thing in creation, then in Christ and His church, and how much more in God. God isn't mastered...

Mastery and mystery are a false dichotomy. What if there is more revealed in exegesis and lexicography than has been historically presented? What if EVERYBODY missed something? One thing. And yet all presumed to have included it.

Accounting for multi-phenomenality with a uni-phenomenal filter is fallacious. It's the most difficult obstacle to recognizing (re-cognizing) the depth, breadth, and height of Theology Proper and dispelling false and prematurely-declared "mystery".

Thanks! But you deserve a hearing! That is the Protestant tradition--Ecclesia reformata et semper reformanda [but always WITH] secundum verbum Dei!

:)

You're not likely to get a serious (maybe should say academic) hearing from the Orthodox.

Nor would anyone, really. I love the Easterns, though.

The RCC offers a little more latitude in theological speculation, though.

Meh. But I'm not fond of the Latinisms.

Okay.

I used atemporal (and infinite) to capture that since "eternity" is polysemous (as you go on to note below).

Eternity isn't really polysemous as much as not understood. God alone is eternity. It's an incommunicable attribute.

"Atemporal" in this sense!

And yet... the cosmos isn't "temporary". Such terms have consistently been misapplied and misused.

I think you want to limit the notion merely to time and I understand what you're saying but "eternal" also has a certain quality about it (And this is eternal life, that they know you the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent) so we can't just say "everlasting life"--there's a component there about knowing.

And that would be great if it were conveyed based on the appropriate foundation of distinguishing uncreated eternity from created aeviternity. It most definitely has a qualitative connotation, which is obscured by the terms themselves.

Yes, I know you keep saying this but it is clearly distinguished by doctrine in the various Christian confessions.

And you keep saying this, but it is NOT clearly distinguished. It's declared from a presumptive uni-phenomenal perspective.

I just did, PPS!

No. But I know you think you did.

I agree (and I didn't).

I know you didn't, but you also didn't account for multi-phenomenality.

Well first, I hope you agree that the uncreated, omnipotent, and omniscient God would not develop the creation that He did without having any means of communicating (and/or commune-icating) with it.

Of course He wouldn't. Creation cannot be superordinant to God or in any way exclusive OF Him.

The way its being presented is almost as if God creates by necessity and then somehow must figure a way to interact with creation--a rather hapless God indeed.

Ummm... No. My statements have been to show the naivete' of uni-phenomenality.

That said, the "formatting" is the Logos. The ontological mediator, the economic mediator, the only mediator--Jesus Christ.

Right. But STILL not according to uni-phenomenality, which is all that has been historically presented. And the further more difficult elephant in the room to deal with is the Holy Spirit, who is also not an individuated hypostasis either.

And man has an inner "receiver" or "receptor" or "recognizer" which Scripture locates in his heart. This inner receiver, while fallen, is not extinguished and is illumined of and by the Logos.

That's oida. Intuitive knowledge. Access, which was abrogated and resigned to internal functionality by Edenic spiritual death. And then Augustine jacked up any real understanding of it, inisisting man is conceived in sin.

This is in part natural reason--by design. "For what can be known about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them."

God is not hindered by man's depravity in redeeming us.

I gave you the how earlier--"He is pure be-ing in pure act--no unrealized potential in Him.

That's nowhere near the extent of "how" to which I'm referring.

He is holding every last particle of matter together and if He didn't we'd poof out of existence."

Well... This is quite nebulous, though true. How?

(And you'd have to point specifically to "Aquinas' epic fail"

Briefly... His two "kinds" of eternity. One for God, one for heaven.

because he says essentially the same thing you said "Yes" to above.

Only the uni-phenomenal attempt at multi-phenomenality.

You keep repeating this but I know I am not the only one who understands and affirms the distinction and accounts for it.

Sad sigh. No. This is the wall that always erects itself in this convo. Wherelessness and whenlessness doesn't just coalesce with wheres and whens.

Multi-phenomenality must be truly understood and accounted for.

I think you think the only way this can be done is via multi-phenomenality and it just isn't so if you address how pure be-ing in act doesn't, we can dive down further.

We'll have to. So far, it's only snorkeling in uni-phenomenality.

Point specifically to his epic failure. At bottom, his epic failure for you can only be that he argues and affirms 3 hypostases but not only does he do that, he argues how, summed up with the snip "God is said to be in all things by essence, not indeed by the essence of the things themselves, as if He were of their essence; but by His own essence; because His substance is present to all things as the cause of their being." which leads me to the below...

This will take some doing, since we're not yet referring to the same things and you presume we are.

...where you said "okay". So if you'd like to discuss the essence portion and/or heaven as a consideration, I'm right here! :)

Since creation is not immanent to God's essence, it cannot just "be" so. And multi-hypostaticism has replaced multi-phenomenality.

This I agree with (as can most)--it's essentially the ubiquitous philosophical realism "Christianized".

Well... sorta, but not really. Realism is a philosophical system of epistemology for created consciousness and perception.

Ah--an indirect realist as relates perception. I'm a direct realist so may get out Ockham's razor later to hack that "representation" off...

I'm not an indirect realist, and this has nothing to do with realism.

Good to this point, too.

You are way, waaaaaay closer, btw, to Aquinas than you know (or would care to admit)...

The sad thing is it seems so. That's why I despise his self-declared straw. It's so subtly close to truth that true multi-phenomenality jas been obscured.

And here's where I get off because...

I know. It's the jumping-off-point where uni-phenomenal caricature and parallel runs out.

...I say it is in existence. And hypostatically so--as real centers of action.

A uni-phenomenal assertion.

I may need to argue direct realism here. I know why you need the noumenon or percept or representation but...you don't!

I'm not addressing realism in the least. Arguing direct versus indirect realism is irrelevant here.


Yay. I'm just hoping you're agreeing for what it is rather than a parody or caricature.

Okay, but let's focus on the two first.

Almost impossible, as I see it. The scabbard and sword are homogenous. (And should dispel any notion that I'm an indirect realist, yes?)

A nice personal sit-down would be productive, efficient, and expeditious. This format is very limited and becomes tedious.
 
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1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
That's oida. Intuitive knowledge. Access, which was abrogated and resigned to internal functionality by Edenic spiritual death. And then Augustine jacked up any real understanding of it, inisisting man is conceived in sin.

Nope.

Adam had no more special spiritual connection to God than anyone else.

The Holy Spirit moved him to prophecy same as all the prophets and this we see happening before the supposed fall or yer so called spiritual death.


Genesis 2:24 KJV

24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.



2 Peter 1:21 KJV


21 For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I think you think the only way this can be done is via multi-phenomenality and it just isn't so if you address how pure be-ing in act doesn't, we can dive down further.

What you've said here is that there is no requirement for uncreated phenomenon to be distinct from created phenomenon.

This means you don't understand the difference and presume multi-phenomenality to be something other than what it is.
 

Ask Mr. Religion

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Nothing you said there makes any sense. And you failed to respond to what the author of Hebrews quoted from the OT about the Lord Jesus earlier in that book:
I see. I offer up a plain explanation and you simply claim "not making sense" and continue to quote Scripture and assert your original position.

He made Himself a little lower than the angels. Do you think that angels are omnipresent?
No they are not, and the "little lower than angels" speaks to Our Lord's ultimate humility and infirmities of the human nature assumed, especially its corporeal aspect, not possessed by angels.

We also know that while the Lord walked the earth He no longer possessed the quality of being omniscient (Mt.24:36).
So the Second Person of the Trinity was no longer God, upholding the universe? Moreover, Our Lord is no longer divine since He no longer possesses divine attributes, such as omnipresence. What other divine attributes do you think were "no longer possessed"? Omnipotence? Omniscience?

Add the heresy of kenoticism to your ever growing list, Jerry.

Again I must ask if you have spoken to your Pastor about your views. Have you?

AMR
 

Arsenios

Well-known member
What you've said here is that there is no requirement for uncreated phenomenon to be distinct from created phenomenon.

This means you don't understand the difference and presume multi-phenomenality to be something other than what it is.

I don't know about Protestant orthodoxy, but the Church Fathers all affirm with one accord the RADICAL OTHERNESS of the uncreated God from His creation, while affirming as well the saturation of creation with the ongoing creating which sustains it by the uncreated God which created it in the first place...

Orthodox etiology, for instance, is radical and ongoing creationism, wherein if one has sufficient faith, and tells a mountain to move into the sea, then that mountain will indeed move into the sea...

And where the time between two consecutive nanoseconds is infinite...

This is the reality of genuine apophatic theology...

So that when speaking of the radical otherness of God, we affirm that He cannot be known to human reason, but only to the director of human reason, the nous of man, and herein only by God's revelation, and not by investigation...

Hence the need, in the Saints and the Prophets, for PERSONAL connection to God as a Person, and this as an hypostatic person, and not as the fallen personality which we all are in this fallen world, each with his or her fallen and darkened nous, the director of intelligence...

You suppose that we cannot grasp the distinctness of creation from creator, but you are ignoring the matter of vectoring, wherein of course creation cannot be distinct from its Creator, but the Creator is distinct from that which he created...

The Mr. Ford is distinct from his Edsel, but the Edsel is saturated in its being with Mr. Ford... That is why the Edsel is a Ford car... Ford knows his Edsel, but the Edsel cannot know Ford... The very ability to know is directional... We cannot know God except by and through God, and this is Grace that only God can give, because only God HAS it to give, and which cannot be earned or merited, yet which God is eager to give, in His wanton Love for mankind, whom He created in His Own Image and Likeness...

Arsenios
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
I don't know about Protestant orthodoxy, but the Church Fathers all affirm with one accord the RADICAL OTHERNESS of the uncreated God from His creation, while affirming as well the saturation of creation with the ongoing creating which sustains it by the uncreated God which created it in the first place...

Orthodox etiology, for instance, is radical and ongoing creationism, wherein if one has sufficient faith, and tells a mountain to move into the sea, then that mountain will indeed move into the sea...

And where the time between two consecutive nanoseconds is infinite...

This is the reality of genuine apophatic theology...

So that when speaking of the radical otherness of God, we affirm that He cannot be known to human reason, but only to the director of human reason, the nous of man, and herein only by God's revelation, and not by investigation...

Hence the need, in the Saints and the Prophets, for PERSONAL connection to God as a Person, and this as an hypostatic person, and not as the fallen personality which we all are in this fallen world, each with his or her fallen and darkened nous, the director of intelligence...

You suppose that we cannot grasp the distinctness of creation from creator, but you are ignoring the matter of vectoring, wherein of course creation cannot be distinct from its Creator, but the Creator is distinct from that which he created...

The Mr. Ford is distinct from his Edsel, but the Edsel is saturated in its being with Mr. Ford... That is why the Edsel is a Ford car... Ford knows his Edsel, but the Edsel cannot know Ford... The very ability to know is directional... We cannot know God except by and through God, and this is Grace that only God can give, because only God HAS it to give, and which cannot be earned or merited, yet which God is eager to give, in His wanton Love for mankind, whom He created in His Own Image and Likeness...

Arsenios

Apart from the Ford and Edsel silliness that is a horrible attempted analogy, this entire post is beautifully and wonderfully stated. It represents utter and absolute truth, especially in regard to intuiting and the human nous.

The sad thing is that it's bare assertion that is incompatible with the bare assertion of three hypostases for God, ignoring the very multi-phenomenality just insisted upon.

At least Aquinas, God bless his Scholastic little straw heart, made ridiculously intensive effort to account for "hows" of everything. The Orthodox just adhere to an alleged infallibility of humans with no need for any deeper revelation of God throughout human history and the Christian faith.

Certain forms of Modalism and Binitarianism are as close to the missed bullseye as the Classic Trinity doctrine. Semi-Sabellians and Semi-Arians are also nearly in the same perimeter, depending on minutiae of individual belief.

NONE represent the truth of your post, ALL being Uni-phenomenal compensations for Multi-phenomenal truth.

The express image OF a hypostasis is NOT another hypostasis. The express image is the impressing of God's singular hypostasis upon His literal Logos to proceed forth from uncreated phenomenon into created phenomena as the eternal Son. The re-presentation of God's uncreated Self-Noumenal Self-Phenomenal hypostasis in created phenomena of heaven and, by pre-Incarnate Theophanies and then Incarnation, the cosmos.

Saying all the Rubik's cube truths while only working one side is still fallacious. Three hypostases doesn't fit with the glorious truth of this post.

(And I indeed made reference to what you term "vectoring" in my last post to Soror1. That "vectoring" is the multi-phenomenality that you give lip service to without accounting for while asserting three uni-phenomenal hypostases.)

Maddening, I tell ya. Stop somewhere and get some 3D glasses, Bro. Yer killin' me here.
 
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Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
So the Second Person of the Trinity was no longer God, upholding the universe? Moreover, Our Lord is no longer divine since He no longer possesses divine attributes, such as omnipresence. What other divine attributes do you think were "no longer possessed"? Omnipotence? Omniscience?

In regard to omniscience, why did you run and hide from this verse:

"But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only" (Mt.24:36).​

The Father knew something which the Son did not know. So if you would actually use your brain for a change you would know that the Lord Jesus did not possess the quality of "omniscience" while He walked the earth.

The Lord Jesus remained God and He remained Man. And in eternity He was always Man and He was always God. But you say that He originally had only one nature and then at some point He acquired another nature.

But that idea is contradicted by this verse which says that He does not change:

"And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands: They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment; And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail" (Heb.1:12-14).​

Your mind is so closed to the truth that you cannot even understand the difference between the temporal and the eternal.
 
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1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
In regard to omniscience, why did you run and hide from this verse:

"But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only" (Mt.24:36).​

The Father knew something which the Son did not know. So if you would actually use your brain for a change you would know that the Lord Jesus did not possess the quality of "omniscience" while He walked the earth.

The Lord Jesus remained God and He remained Man. And in eternity He was always Man and He was always God. But you say that He was originally had only one nature and then at some point He acquired another nature.

But that idea is contradicted by this verse which says that He does not change:

"And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands: They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment; And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail" (Heb.1:12-14).​

Your mind is so closed to the truth that you cannot even understand the difference between the temporal and the eternal.

Bingo. :thumb:

However he was not omniscient before he incarnated either.

Otherwise you have him changing also.


Colossians 1:18 KJV


18 And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence .
 
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