ECT Our triune God

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Lotta hot air.

Answer the question.

Did those invisible angels and horses have bodies or not?

The angels have spiritual bodies. as for the horses, they have flesh and blood bodies.

Now answer the points I raised.

And why would you then assume the departed have no bodies?

What kind of bodies do you think that those who are in heaven waiting for the resurrection have?

Surely they no longer in possession of their flesh and blood bodies. Or do you think that when they get to heaven they are given another flesh and blood body?

Frankly, I find that to be impossible, especially with what is said here in view:

"And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly. Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption" (1 Cor.15:49-50).​

Paul said we have bodies.

Yes, and he called our earthly bodies "natural bodies." And he used the adjective "spiritual" bodies to describe the kind of body we will have when we are resurrected:

"It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body" (1 Cor.15:44).

The Greek word translated 'spiritual' "always connotes the ideas of invisibility and of power" (Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words).

That is the body which believing humans will have in the eternal state, the heavenly kingdom. And the things in that realm cannot be seen because in our flesh and blood bodies were are not equipped to see these things:

"While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal" (2 Cor.4:18).​

The Lord Jesus is described this way:

"Howbeit for this cause I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might shew forth all longsuffering, for a pattern to them which should hereafter believe on him to life everlasting. Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, be honour and glory for ever and ever" (1 Tim.1:16).​

The Lord Jesus is now in heaven with a spiritual, heavenly body. He is not now in heaven with either a flesh and blood body or a flesh and bones body. Despite this He remains Man.

This proves that a flesh and blood body or a flesh and bones body is not essential to humanity.
 

patrick jane

BANNED
Banned
The angels have spiritual bodies. as for the horses, they have flesh and blood bodies.

Now answer the points I raised.



What kind of bodies do you think that those who are in heaven waiting for the resurrection have?

Surely they no longer in possession of their flesh and blood bodies. Or do you think that when they get to heaven they are given another flesh and blood body?

Frankly, I find that to be impossible, especially with what is said here in view:

"And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly. Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption" (1 Cor.15:49-50).​



Yes, and he called our earthly bodies "natural bodies." And he used the adjective "spiritual" bodies to describe the kind of body we will have when we are resurrected:

"It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body" (1 Cor.15:44).

The Greek word translated 'spiritual' "always connotes the ideas of invisibility and of power" (Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words).

That is the body which believing humans will have in the eternal state, the heavenly kingdom. And the things in that realm cannot be seen because in our flesh and blood bodies were are not equipped to see these things:

"While we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen: for the things which are seen are temporal; but the things which are not seen are eternal" (2 Cor.4:18).​

The Lord Jesus is described this way:

"Howbeit for this cause I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might shew forth all longsuffering, for a pattern to them which should hereafter believe on him to life everlasting. Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, be honour and glory for ever and ever" (1 Tim.1:16).​

The Lord Jesus is now in heaven with a spiritual, heavenly body. He is not now in heaven with either a flesh and blood body or a flesh and bones body. Despite this He remains Man.

This proves that a flesh and blood body or a flesh and bones body is not essential to humanity.

i don't think anyone knows about the horses, or your second to last sentence; i can't argue with scripture, but i can with your last sentence -

things are often 'proven' in one's mind, with no room for the truth. you have proven nothing; stop thinking you can - :argue:
 
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Arsenios

Well-known member
Human, nonetheless. That proves that a flesh and blood body is not essential to humanity.

God created man flesh and blood...

You can argue with Him...

You think you can take away flesh and blood from man and still have man...

You have disembodied souls, awaiting bodies...

You call these ghosts men and women...

You wouldn't know "reasoning" if it hit you right between the eyes.

More mouth, no reasoning...

According to your so-called reasoning the Lord Jesus originally had only one nature and then at some point He acquired another but yet He didn't change and remained the same.!

Children put on Halloween masks - Do they change?

According to your so-called reasoning, the Lord Jesus with one nature is exactly the same Jesus with two natures.

You think His Divine Nature changed?

All you prove is that you will say anything, no matter how ridiculous, in order to try to win an argument!

Well gosh... I didn't mean to make you cry...

You were just being kinda aggressive and obnoxious...

Here, have some cookies and milk...

A.
 

1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
You have not proved that. And why do you continue to refuse to answer my points?

I'm not trying to prove anything.

Angels ate and drank with Abraham and Lot.

Tangible bodies.

I dont care what you do with the info.

Once again this comes down to the word be and being.

Verbs not nouns.

We shall be like him, not look like him.

John was not talking about physical appearance, he already knew what he looked like.


1 John 3:2 KJV


2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be : but we know that, when he shall appear , we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is .
 

1Mind1Spirit

Literal lunatic
i don't think anyone knows about the horses, or your second to last sentence; i can't argue with scripture, but i can with your last sentence -

Yer right, I dont know for shore 'bout them horses, but here's some scripture.

Are whales and dolphins that different than horses?



Revelation 16:3 KJV


3 And the second angel poured out his vial upon the sea; and it became as the blood of a dead man: and every living soul died in the sea.


I dont think Jerry realizes animals are living souls, so he conceded they still had flesh.
 
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Ask Mr. Religion

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Let us look at what you asked here:
Let's focus on the question I asked that you have avoided and then deal with others:

"Was God the Son confined to earth and therefore not omnipresent during the time Jesus walked the earth?"

Keep this in mind, too: Jesus is plainly the name assigned to him before his birth by the angel; but he was given that name as any baby is.

It is not orthodox to say that the Son is part this and part that. He is fully God and fully man. However it is certainly true that the Son was not man before the incarnation. And the Son's human nature is not eternal.

You should also take the time to meditate on this mediation before responding further:

http://www.apuritansmind.com/the-ch...the-person-of-christ-by-dr-c-matthew-mcmahon/

Hopefully your answer will comport with the saints of old...
Spoiler

Athanasius of Alexandria
The Word was not hedged in by His body, nor did His presence in the body prevent His being present elsewhere as well. When He moved His body He did not cease also to direct the universe by His Mind and might. No. The marvelous truth is, that being the Word, so far from being Himself contained by anything, He actually contained all things Himself.

In creation He is present everywhere, yet is distinct in being from it; ordering, directing, giving life to all, containing all, yet is He Himself the Uncontained, existing solely in His Father. As with the whole, so also is it with the part. Existing in a human body, to which He Himself gives life, He is still Source of life to all the universe, present in every part of it, yet outside the whole; and He is revealed both through the works of His body and through His activity in the world. It is, indeed, the function of soul to behold things that are outside the body, but it cannot energize or move them.

A man cannot transport things from one place to another, for instance, merely by thinking about them; nor can you or I move the sun and the stars just by sitting at home and looking at them. With the Word of God in His human nature, however, it was otherwise.

His body was for Him not a limitation, but an instrument, so that He was both in it and in all things, and outside all things, resting in the Father alone. At one and the same time—this is the wonder— as Man He was living a human life, and as Word He was sustaining the life of the universe, and as Son He was in constant union with the Father. Not even His birth from a virgin, therefore, changed Him in any way, nor was He defiled by being in the body. Rather, He sanctified the body by being in it. For His being in everything does not mean that He shares the nature of everything, only that He gives all things their being and sustains them in it.


AMR
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
However it is certainly true that the Son was not man before the incarnation. And the Son's human nature is not eternal.

So are you saying that the Lord Jesus is no longer Man while sitting at the right hand of God in the heavenly, eternal kingdom?

Let's focus on the question I asked that you have avoided and then deal with others:

I answered one of your questions but you responded to nothing which I said. Here is that question and please answer my response to your question:

Do you think the human nature of Jesus would have existed at all without God the Son?

The Lord Jesus as Man and as God existed in eternity. So neither nature was dependant on the other. After all, we see that the Lord Jesus does not change:

"Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever" (Heb.13:8).​

These words speak for themselves but since they contradict you teaching you must somehow change the plain meaning:

The passage is Hebrews 13:8 is not teaching anything related to the ontological nature of our Lord. Instead, the references to former "leaders" who had preached the word of God to the community (Hebrews 13:7), and the present leaders whose authority is to be respected (Hebrews 13:17), are complementary. Hebrews 13:7-9 hang together conceptually: the word of God proclaimed previously (in Hebrews 13:7) is crystallized in the confessional formulation of 13:8.

When Hebrews was written the Lord Jesus was both God and Man. That cannot be denied. We also read the same thing in the first chapter:

"And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands: They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment;And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail" (Heb.1:10-12).​

Despite these facts you say that He did change. According to your idea He originally only had one nature and then at some point He acquired another nature. That can only mean that He underwent a change.

So your idea is contradicted by the Scriptures. How do you explain that? The author of Hebrews says that He is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow and that He does not change.

You say that He did change. I believe what the author of Hebrews said instead of you.

We also know that the Lord Jesus Himself said this:

"What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?" (Jn.6:62).​

So by the Lord's own words He was in heaven as Man before He came down to the earth and was born of Mary.

Evidently you, like many others, falsely believe that a flesh and blood body is essential to humanity. And that is the source of your error. You put more faith in your preconceived ideas than you do in what the Scriptures actually say.

That is my response to one of your questions. Now it is your time to answer my response. Or you can concede that what I said is correct.
 
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Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
We shall be like him, not look like him.

John was not talking about physical appearance, he already knew what he looked like.

1 John 3:2 KJV

2 Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be : but we know that, when he shall appear , we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is .

This proves that at the rapture we will not put on a resurrected body like the Lord Jesus'resurrected body. If we are going to receive that kind of body then John would not say this:

"Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be : but we know that, when he shall appear , we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is" (1 Jn.3:2).​

If John knew that he was going to put on a similar body to the body which he saw when he looked upon the flesh and bones body of the Lord Jesus then he would not have said, "It doth not yet appear what we shall be."

Those who will meet Him in the air will put on bodies similar to those who will be resurrected first (1 Thess.4:16) and that body will be a "spiritual" body:

"It is sown a natural body; it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body" (1 Cor.15:44).​

The Greek word translated "spiritual" is an adjective and it describes the resurrected " body." That word means: "always connotes the ideas of invisibility and of power" (Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words).

So it is evident that the resurrected bodies of the sains will not be flesh and blood bodies. It will be a heavenly body and we will need such a body to enter the heavenly kingdom:

"And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly. Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption" (1 Cor.15:49-50).​

Angels ate and drank with Abraham and Lot.

Tangible bodies

Evidently angels are able to transform their supernatural bodies in such a way whereby they can be seen on the earth and actually eat food.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
You would have us believe this!:

And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the human being which is in heaven"​

Of course. When the Lord Jesus referred to Himself as "Son of Man" He was saying that He was Man. And Man means "a human being."

So when the Lord Jesus said this:

"And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven" (Jn.3:13).​

It can be interpreted in the following way:

"And no human hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Human which is in heaven."

Do you deny that the Lord Jesus is now in heaven as a Human?

Because as you know, Jesus did:

36 David himself, in the Holy Spirit, declared,

“‘The Lord said to my Lord,
“Sit at my right hand,
until I put your enemies under your feet.”’
37 David himself calls him Lord. So how is he his son?” And the great throng heard him gladly.​

Would you please explain how that helps you in anyway? I see nothing there which even hints that when the Lord used the term "Son of Man" that He was referring to anything other than being a Human. You mustbe seeing something that I am not so please spell it out.

(By the way, notice here in Mark "the great throng" heard Him gladly but in Matthew 22:41-46, the Pharisees didn't. Which is what I said earlier about those in authority being in the position to do something about His claim as The Son of Man of Daniel.)

It was not His claiming to be Son of Man that upset them so much. Instead, it was His claim to be Son of God that angered them:

"The Jews answered him, We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God" (Jn.19:7).​

Again, as I laid out earlier for the trial, Jesus ties it all together here--David's Lord is Daniel's The Son of Man:

Again the high priest asked him, “Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed?” 62 And Jesus said, “I am, and you will see the Son of Man seated at the right hand of Power, and coming with the clouds of heaven.”​

I still cannot see why you think that these things are teaching that the term Son of Man is referring to something other than being Human. You need to explain what you are thinking.
 
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Arsenios

Well-known member
Jer' said:
[Question]
Do you think the human nature of Jesus
would have existed at all without God the Son?


The Lord Jesus as Man and as God existed in eternity.
So neither nature was dependant on the other.
After all, we see that the Lord Jesus does not change:

"Jesus Christ the same
yesterday, and to day, and for ever"
(Heb.13:8).

These words speak for themselves...

Jer' -
Do you really mean this?
That God did not create human nature?
That human nature existed in eternity independently from God?

Have you considered psychotrophic medications?

Do you really think YOU are God???

Arsenios
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
Jer' -
Do you really mean this?
That God did not create human nature?
That human nature existed in eternity independently from God?

Have you considered psychotrophic medications?

You are the one who needs help badly.

You assert that the Lord Jesus originally had only one nature and then at some point he acquired another nature but yet He did not change.

You must be mentally unstable to assert that the Lord Jesus with one nature is the same exact Jesus with two natures.

If you cannot see how ludicrous your idea is then you definitely are in need of professional help. And I would suggest that you seek that help before you hurt yourself.
 
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Arsenios

Well-known member
You are the one who needs help badly.

You assert that the Lord Jesus originally had only one nature and then at some point he acquired another nature but yet He did not change.

You must be mentally unstable to assert that the Lord Jesus with one nature is the same exact Jesus with two natures.

If you cannot see how ludicrous your idea is then you definitely are in need of professional help. And I would suggest that you seek that help before you hurt yourself.

All mouth...

No answers...

Ho-Hum...

Do you really THINK that YOU are God???

A.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
All mouth...

No answers...

Ho-Hum...

Do you really THINK that YOU are God???

A.

THIS is why I patently refused to engage with him. He is only making one fallacious point, and has no understanding of Theology Proper whatsoever at any level of minutiae.

His Mormon-esqe pseudo-Christology is the height AND depth of banality. It's an example of narrow proof-texting run amok in the midst of actual theology.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
i saw it early on - the one thing you lack - personally or otherwise is LOVE - no scripture or big foreign words necessary - cuz english don't cut it - it's an inferior language if one speaks Greek daily -

now make a post showing how much you love and how much you are loved PERSONALLY; on earth in human terms as a man -

In YOUR OWN WORDS - i.e. - not Bible references as to God's Love for ALL or how love is described in the Bible towards others -

God, in Christ, laid down His life so that, out of my death, I might live.

I love Him, because He first loved me; and that's why I so earnestly contend for truth against untruth. His Word is truth.

I freely give my life for Him who gave His for me.

I'm concerned you don't know what love is. Most do not.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
Good evening, PPS! :)

Good aftahnewn.:cool:

This would only be a problem (in this specific context) if it couldn't explain God's transcendence and immanence but it can.

It cannot. Though much lip service is paid to doing so with bare assertions, it simply cannot. Transcendence is most often considered heaven; and the lip service to any created heaven is insufficient. Uncreated phenomenon and created phenomena are incongruous.

It is wholly untenable that God (the Father) as a hypostasis created through the Son hypostasis. He spoke.

CT would agree with this.

No. It seems so and is declared so, but it most definitely does not except in lip service by bare assertion.

If you would attempt to demonstrate it explicitly, that would help you see you can't.

And this. But not this,

God created everlasting. God created heaven. And He inhabited everlasting (aeviternity) when/as He created ALL.​

if by that you mean the Creator has subject Himself to creation (here time or place.) Like all creation, He sustains it and is present to it but not circumscribed. In heaven, we could say He is more present but this would be by being better known.

But this bare assertion doesn't account for it. HOW did the uncreated transcendent God create and inhabit His creation while remaining eternally transcendent. Aquinas did NOT account for this.

Let me first thank you for being so ready and willing to continue to elaborate on your views. It's much appreciated. Would you explain why you qualify the rhema with "objective" and/or "subjective" and what you mean by "subjectively realized in words"?

I have a book. It's an object. It exists independently of anyone thinking or talking about it.

But it has objective reality of existence. It's not just noumenon. The book has/is phenomenon.

I walk into a room and, through a series of operations in my intellect (using logos), know it's a particular book. I meet up with my neighbor to describe what I've seen (using rhema). I wouldn't say I've "subjectively realized in words" the book, for "realized" to me almost implies I've created an instance of the book so I must be missing something you're saying.

Creatively, if you had the power and innate attributes, the book WOULD BE an instance. Instantiation. But the book, like all created things, only has a phenomenality that was created. We cannot and do not create or recreate.

But God isn't created, so His Rhema (His objective reality) impressing itself (hypostasis) upon His Logos is not a creative act because He is eternal phenomenality. Also in His eternal noumenon is creation, with no intrinsic phenomenon until uttered into existence.

Granted, I would say my perception of the book is subjective (whereas God's, for example, would be completely objective).

And that's the distinction for Theology Proper. God's own foundational underlying substantial objective reality of existence is the only uncreated phenomenon. There was no thing (nothing) else. So while all of creation was instantiated into phenomenal existence, His Logos and Pneuma proceeded forth according to their eternal noumenality AND phenomenality.

The ONLY true objective reality is God. And God eternally and intuitively contemplated, comprehended, and apprehended the entirety of His objective reality to be expressed by His Logos.

The express image OF God's hypostasis was the impress of that hypostasis upon the Logos by His (objective) Rhema, to be re-presented in created phenomena with a prosopon.

That's why the Logos "was with" (pros accusative) God. Toward. Focus. He "formatted" His hypostasis for creation, and it proceeded forth/proceedeth as the Son and Holy Spirit. A two-fold qualitative procession, not an internal ontological processional quantity of hypostases later economically processed.

If you could fill in the missing parts in my example, would appreciate it once again! :first:

That's how I understand them. Do you reject that or are you just elaborating?

Elaborating.

The very foundational underlying absolute assured substantial objective reality of existence (hypostasis) is the thing thought and spoken about by the Logos in subjective words as the objective Rhema.

God realized His own hypostasis in subjective creation as the Son, distinct from Himself and joined perichoretically by the processed noumenon of His Spirit (set apart into creation from Himself as phenomenal Spirit).

Beyond Father and Son, the. Holy Spirit is most definitely NOT an indivduated uni-phenomenal hypostasis. God, by His Logos, pierced and divided asunder His (noumenal) Spirit out from Himself ("Soul") as phenomenal Spirit.

The Holy Spirit is God's OWN Spirit, set apart by being distributed into creation. Creation was noumenon until given phenomenon at the divine utterance. Only God's eternal uncreated Self-noumenon is compatible with creation.

That last sentence is crucial to understand, and it's what the Patristics and (particularly) Aquinas missed and omitted (though doing the requisite lip service of bare assertion).

God's innate uncreated eternal phenomenality is NOT compatible with creation, including heaven. Creation is another phenomenality of existence.

We, by being born from above, are made compatible with Him. Communing from time into His timelessness. Foreknown. Predestinated. "Before" creation IN the eternal Logos, which proceeded forth as the Son and was Incarnate as Theanthropos. But there is no "before" for the timeless one and only God.

Partaking of His divine nature. Now. But there is no "now".
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
All mouth...

No answers...

Ho-Hum...

Do you really THINK that YOU are God???

I never said that I am God and you know it. I guess you felt like you must say something in the hope that no one will notice that you didn't even attempt to defend what I said about your ideas here:

You assert that the Lord Jesus originally had only one nature and then at some point he acquired another nature but yet He did not change.

You must be mentally unstable to assert that the Lord Jesus with one nature is the same exact Jesus with two natures.

You have no answer to that so all you did was to accuse me of believing that I am God.
 

Jerry Shugart

Well-known member
His Mormon-esqe pseudo-Christology is the height AND depth of banality. It's an example of narrow proof-texting run amok in the midst of actual theology.

It is you who is totally confused and knows little of actual theology, as witnessed by my remarks to what you said here:

"Son of God" is reference to the Davidic King, the promised "house" or lineage. His humanity.

No, the term "Son of Man" was employed when referring to the Davidic King:

"I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of Man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed" (Dan.7:13-14).​

When the Jews heard the Lord Jesus say that He is the Son of God and that God is His Father they understood that He was making Himself equal with God:

"Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his father, making himself equal with God" (Jn.5:18).​

If you are as brilliant as you think that you are then how could you not know that the term "Son of Man" was used in reference to the Davidic King and not the term "Son of Man"?

If you are as brilliant as you think you are then why didn't you answer what I said. Someone as brilliant as you think you are would have no problem answering me.

Instead of actually answering me you just make up an excuse for not answering me:

THIS is why I patently refused to engage with him. He is only making one fallacious point, and has no understanding of Theology Proper whatsoever at any level of minutiae.
.

Prove that what I said about the term "Son of Man" referring to the Davidic King proves that I have no understanding of Theology Proper whatsoever at any level of minutiae.

Of course you will not because you are too prideful to take a chance as being exposed as lacking Biblical knowledge.

Instead, you will run and hide in the hope that no one will notice that you will not even attemptto defend your ideas.
 

PneumaPsucheSoma

TOL Subscriber
It is you who is totally confused and knows little of actual theology, as witnessed by my remarks to what you said here:



No, the term "Son of Man" was employed when referring to the Davidic King:

"I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the Son of Man came with the clouds of heaven, and came to the Ancient of days, and they brought him near before him. And there was given him dominion, and glory, and a kingdom, that all people, nations, and languages, should serve him: his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom that which shall not be destroyed" (Dan.7:13-14).​

When the Jews heard the Lord Jesus say that He is the Son of God and that God is His Father they understood that He was making Himself equal with God:

"Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his father, making himself equal with God" (Jn.5:18).​

If you are as brilliant as you think that you are then how could you not know that the term "Son of Man" was used in reference to the Davidic King and not the term "Son of Man"?

If you are as brilliant as you think you are then why didn't you answer what I said. Someone as brilliant as you think you are would have no problem answering me.

Instead of actually answering me you just make up an excuse for not answering me:

.

Prove that what I said about the term "Son of Man" referring to the Davidic King proves that I have no understanding of Theology Proper whatsoever at any level of minutiae.

Of course you will not because you are too prideful to take a chance as being exposed as lacking Biblical knowledge.

Instead, you will run and hide in the hope that no one will notice that you will not even attemptto defend your ideas.

Hey, whatever helps you sleep better at night as a blasphemous heretic in derision and delusion.

I'd post an entire exegetical Hebrew treatment of Son of God and Son of Man, but... pearls before swine. I'll just leave you to what you want so badly in Zionist reprobation.

Ciao for now, Mister Springer.
 
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