Again none taken. There is no doubt an apparent verbosity which takes place from some who know the ancient languages, while others seek to distance themselves from that stuff; just as there is pride amongst some of those who refuse to give those speakers their due respect, as well that considerable opportunities avail themselves to those who don't, to gain insight into their studies, otherwise unavailable to them.
I give them their due respect for what they say and not how they say it. In that regard verbiage means everything.
A question for you: do you think it is only to English-only readers that the Holy Spirit intercedes; in other words, do you think he has nothing to "say" to those who study and seek to know our Lord in Greek too?
Sure He does, if allowed. I have gleaned much from such scholars.
I guess I already know that you see no value in obtaining a well-rounded liberal arts education.
To the contrary, I do if it is from one without religious reform agenda.
I am thankful for the material free of "smothering subjective" thinking others have proffered for my benefit. There is quite a selection out there to chose from including some very good concordances that no one should need to have to struggle any longer to understand the message contained within the ancient languages especially to see it is still the same message..
My issue is with insight or lack of it when using 'plain' language when delivering it. It is useless info unless delivered for understanding. I am never impressed with how many letters one has after his name unless he can do that and does it. Here is an example of verse that is inspired while the other is worthless when put up against what Paul was always attempting to convey:
"I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me." Galatians 2:20 (KJV)
"I have been crucified with Christ. It is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me. And the life I now live in the flesh I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me." Galatians 2:20 (ESV)
Which one impresses you as insightful? Can you say why?
That said, a second question, I came to the awareness of a quite distinct interpretation of Romans 5.15-19 via, not only my knowledge of the Greek language, but from my studies into primitive-Mediterranean social worlds ~ their literary conventions and social constructs ~ through my studies towards a philosophy degree. Do you mind if I post it now, and then do you mind as well telling me if you think you could have come to a similar conclusion yourself, by reading only English texts with no background in ancient world studies?
If I can use the KJV, sure. Be happy to.