Rather than simply saying that something needs to be done, why don't you do it? If "to see" isn't correct, then what is?
I asked Chat GPT a similar question because I don't have the time it would take to look it up myself. Here's the answer I got....
The phrase "to see" in Genesis 2:19 comes from the Hebrew word לִרְאוֹת (lir'ot), which is derived from the verb רָאָה (ra'ah), meaning "to see" or "to observe." The specific verse in Hebrew is:
Meaning and Accuracy:
- Literal Meaning of "To See": The word רָאָה is primarily visual, meaning "to look at," "to observe," or "to perceive." In this context, it suggests God was "observing" or "watching" what Adam would name the animals.
- Implications in Context:
- The use of לִרְאוֹת implies a sense of anticipation or interest in Adam's action.
- It may carry a connotation of God allowing Adam to exercise creativity and dominion, observing his choice without dictating it.
- Accuracy of Translation:
- "To see" is a very accurate translation of לִרְאוֹת in English.
- However, some translations may add interpretive elements to convey the relational or participatory nature of the event, such as "to see what he would name them" (NIV) or "to see what he would call them" (ESV).
Theological Significance:
The phrase implies a participatory relationship between God and Adam, highlighting human agency. God is not prescribing the names but rather witnessing Adam's exercise of the authority given to him (Genesis 1:28). This relational dynamic supports a broader understanding of God's interaction with creation as one that involves genuine response and freedom.
I'd have to say that I agree with every syllable of that and would be willing to bet that you can't refute any of it.We alternatively draw conclusions that aren't the same. I've gone into the text for instance with God saying "Now I know." The Hebrew word and English given do not match up. Am I better translator? No, other than I'd have given a lot of footnotes whenever an idea didn't quite convey in English what the text actually meant. It is my estimation that many OV paradigms come from not digging deeper and looking at original words and intent. Granted we get a good basic idea from English what was transpiring, but we have to dig beyond before we make up a theology system. If it is based on a limited scope of English meaning, it is problematic. Do I have some of these in my theology? Undoubtedly so I look forward to correction and discussions such as these.
I asked the same question concerning the phrase "now I know" in Genesis 22:12. Here's the answer I got.......
In Genesis 22:12, the phrase "now I know" comes from the Hebrew עַתָּה יָדַעְתִּי (attah yada'ti), where:
- עַתָּה (attah) means "now."
- יָדַעְתִּי (yada'ti) is the first-person singular perfect form of יָדַע (yada), meaning "to know."
The full Hebrew phrase is:
Meaning and Accuracy:
- Literal Meaning of "Now I Know":
- The verb יָדַע (yada) generally means "to know," and in this form, it expresses completed action: "I have come to know" or "I now know."
- The word עַתָּה (now) emphasizes the timing—this knowledge is newly confirmed at the moment of Abraham's demonstrated obedience.
- Accuracy of Translation:
- "Now I know" is a very accurate rendering of the Hebrew phrase.
- Some translations might interpret or paraphrase it slightly to emphasize the implication of experiential knowledge, e.g., "I see now" or "I have come to know."
Interpretive Considerations:
- Theological and Philosophical Implications:
- The phrase suggests that God’s knowledge in this context is relational or experiential. While classical theism often asserts that God has exhaustive foreknowledge, this passage appears to highlight a dynamic where God's "knowing" is tied to Abraham’s actions unfolding in real time.
- Some interpret this as anthropomorphic language—a way of describing God's interaction with human events in terms that humans can understand. Others see it as a genuine instance of God experiencing and responding to human choices.
- Open Theism and Relational Theology:
- In views like Open Theism, this phrase aligns well with the idea that God's knowledge includes knowing possibilities and experiencing events as they happen, allowing genuine human freedom.
- The emphasis on "now" points to a specific moment where Abraham’s reverence for God is not just theoretically known but confirmed through action.
In summary, "now I know" is an accurate and straightforward translation of the Hebrew, but its deeper implications have sparked significant theological reflection on the nature of God's knowledge and relationship with creation.
It is fascinating to note that I DID NOT mention anything about Open Theism in my question! In fact, here's the verbatim prompt that I entered into Chat GPT....
"When the bible says that God had Adam name the animals "to see" what he would call them, what is it in the original language that is translated "to see" and just how accurate a translation is that into English?", and to get the second response, I simply entered, "Same question concerning the phrase "now I know" in Gen 22:12."
