You seem to think that only conspiracy nuts can possibly think that courts and judges are corrupt, so I assume that you accept all court decisions as if they are Holy Writ.
So, I wonder if you think that OJ Simpson is innocent just because a court said he was?
This is misleading. Yes, I implied (nay, directly asserted) that you were engaging in conspiracy-theory thinking. If you had offered an
evidence-based explanation for your position that the judges are "corrupt", then you would be able to justifiably object. Obviously judges
can be corrupt. But surely you must realize how decidedly suspicious it will seem to a neutral reader that you simply
claim these particular judges are corrupt. Basically, you are trying to
baldly assert something that will buttress your position - namely that these judges were corrupt. But we need evidence.
Nothing I have written justifies your attributing to me the belief that "all court decisions" are Holy Writ. Let's recap what is going on here:
1. You have claimed the election was stolen - a claim that would entail significant systemic fraud.
2. I challenged that claim by stating a clear truth - the courts have rejected all (or virtually all) such claims.
3. Yes, implicit in my claim (2) is a general faith in the legitimacy of the courts. And yes, if the courts are indeed corrupt, then my
objection fails.
4. However, and this is absolutely critical, even if my objection fails,
you still have not provided evidence (at least in this exchange) that the election was stolen. And I think we both know how that will play out anyway - you will cite non-credible claims that are easily shot down.
5. In any event, it is a priori exceedingly implausible that, in the United States, there is widespread, system corruption in the courts.
And, obviously, nothing I have written would put me in a position of difficulty relative to your second question.