And the NT writers center it all about Christ.Different situations in different dispensations.
Another great example of how the NT writers take events that were about others and make it all about Christ.
And the NT writers center it all about Christ.
With Christ's approval. By way of Him authorizing His hand picked Apostles, who oversaw the birth and early administration of the Church (organization), and who both wrote and authenticated the whole New Testament and thereby Scripture (Bible) itself. Christ amended the Old Covenant in teaching the New (e.g. Matthew chapter five), and His Apostles amended the Old Testament in writing and authorizing the New.Another great example of how the NT writers take events that were about others and make it all about Christ.
With Christ's approval. By way of Him authorizing His hand picked Apostles, who oversaw the birth and early administration of the Church (organization), and who both wrote and authenticated the whole New Testament and thereby Scripture (Bible) itself. Christ amended the Old Covenant in teaching the New (e.g. Matthew chapter five), and His Apostles amended the Old Testament in writing and authorizing the New.
The covenant that specified people of all nations coming to the Lord.The new COVENANT is between God and Israel. Jer 31, Heb 8
The scripture is CLEAR and UNAMBIGUOUS that the NEW covenant is with the same two parties as the OLD covenant.The covenant that specified people of all nations coming to the Lord.
The new covenant is to reconcile people of all nations to God, not just people of Israel.
Nope. Below is the actual UNAMBIGUOUS "version" of the scripture that you wish it was, but it's NOT:The scripture is CLEAR and UNAMBIGUOUS that the NEW covenant is with the same two parties as the OLD covenant.
But that's NOT what it actually says!Jer 31:31-33 (AKJV/PCE)
(31:31) ¶ Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with [ONLY AND EXCLUSIVELY] the house of Israel, and [ONLY AND EXCLUSIVELY] with the house of Judah: (31:32) Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day [that] I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: (31:33) But this [shall be] the covenant that I will make with [ONLY AND EXCLUSIVELY] the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law [ONLY AND EXCLUSIVELY] in [THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL'S] inward parts, and write it [ONLY AND EXCLUSIVELY] in [THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL'S] hearts; and will be [ONLY AND EXCLUSIVELY] their God, and they [ONLY AND EXCLUSIVELY] shall be my people.
Sorry, it says what it says. Your weaseling doesn't change a thing.Nope. Below is the actual UNAMBIGUOUS "version" of the scripture that you wish it was, but it's NOT:
But that's NOT what it actually says!
Of course it says what it says, and of course it doesn't say what it doesn't say also, but I'm not 'weaseling'.Sorry, it says what it says. Your weaseling doesn't change a thing.
I'm sure glad I was grafted into the Branch that bears the fruit of God.The scripture is CLEAR and UNAMBIGUOUS that the NEW covenant is with the same two parties as the OLD covenant.
Jer 31:31-33 (AKJV/PCE)
(31:31) ¶ Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah: (31:32) Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day [that] I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the LORD: (31:33) But this [shall be] the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
The "house of Israel" is NOT "all nations". It is ONE nation.
Verse 32 also makes it crystal clear who that ONE nation is..... ISRAEL was the nation who's fathers God brought out of Egypt.
When God says "the house of Israel", it is clear what that means. He does not need to add "only".Of course it says what it says, and of course it doesn't say what it doesn't say also, but I'm not 'weaseling'.
Argument from silence. Begging the question.When God says "the house of Israel", it is clear what that means. He does not need to add "only".
You are lying or just dumb.Argument from silence. Begging the question.
You hurt yourself.you really know how to hurt a guy
It is written..."And in that day there shall be a root of Jesse, which shall stand for an ensign of the people; to it shall the Gentiles seek: and his rest shall be glorious." (Isa 11:10)When God says "the house of Israel", it is clear what that means. He does not need to add "only".
And His TWO kingdoms.....the one on earth and the one in heaven.And the NT writers center it all about Christ.
A house divided cannot stand.And His TWO kingdoms.....the one on earth and the one in heaven.
I didn't say it was dumbo.The "house of Israel" is NOT "all nations". It is ONE nation.
The NT applies that to Christ, as it does the seed of Abraham.Verse 32 also makes it crystal clear who that ONE nation is..... ISRAEL was the nation who's fathers God brought out of Egypt.